Category Archives: Jesus Christ

Jesus did not commit Suicide

Jesus did not commit Suicide

“killed himself by himself”? So He comitted suicide did He? You are as delusional as your controlling spirit is demonic.

Another day another Muslim straw man another hearsay parrot MD Khalid posted: “If Jesus be God or Son of God why he allowed to be suicidal? Isint suicide a sin?”

We often see this sort of fallacious argument used by Muslims in their desperation to denounce the crucifixion.

Let’s debunk the myth. Jesus allowed Himself to be killed and die an unjust death to save others. That self sacrifice is the most noble and greatest expression of love possible:

“No one has greater love than this, that someone would lay down his life for his friends.” (John 15:13 HCSB)

And Jesus had the authority to sacrifice Himself it was not a random selfish act of a needless waste of life, as characterizes suicide:

“No one takes it from Me, but I lay it down on My own. I have the right [KJV “power”] to lay it down, and I have the right [power] to take it up again. I have received this command from My Father.” (John 10:18 HCSB)

Suicide means you take your own life. It is an active choice (even when mental issues such as depression are involved). But where do we draw the line? If someone sits on train tracks knowing a train will come because they no longer wish to live, it’s suicide. If someone throws themselves on a grenade to protect others, it’s not.

In other words, suicide is defined more by the reason for dying than it is the act of dying.

Jesus had no desire to die. His prayer in Gethsemene proves that. “Father, if thou be willing, remove this cup from me: nevertheless not my will, but thine, be done.” (Luke 22:42)

Of the many things that made Jesus the Son of God, one is that He had the choice to live. All other people who have and will live on earth only have the choice to die. We can, if we so choose, decide the moment of our deaths. But none of us, facing that moment, can choose to avoid it. We can choose not to die in that we choose not to raise a gun to our heads today. But we cannot choose to live once the trigger has been pulled.

But Jesus could choose to live: “Or do you think that I cannot call on My Father, and He will provide Me at once with more than 12 legions of angels? How, then, would the Scriptures be fulfilled that say it must happen this way? ” (Matthew 26:53‭-‬54 HCSB)

At any moment, even while hanging on the cross, He could have commanded the angels to lift him down. The onlookers mocked Him for His failure to save Himself. He could have commanded his wounds healed. He could have chosen to live (and was even once tempted by Satan to abuse this power, Matthew 4:6). But the atonement required a willing sacrifice ” a person willing to throw themselves upon the proverbial grenade to protect others ” and that choice had to be absolute in every possible way. With his last breath He could have chosen to live, but the rest of us were more important to Him than His own life. He allowed Himself to die that we may live. That is the essence of love.

A willing sacrifice is an act of selfless love and respect for others. Suicide is inherently selfish, an effort to remove oneself from burden or responsibility. It is also inherently sinful because God alone has the right to take life and the form and moment of His choosing.

So it’s not the fact of death it’s the WHY a person chooses to die that determines whether or not the act was one of suicide or sacrifice.

Therefore, no, Jesus did not commit suicide. He remains not guilty of sin. And having lived a perfect life, He has the privilege of judging all sin. And while I do not understand all things, I believe I understand this well enough to be content and at peace with my faith.

MAKE NO MISTAKE: #JESUS_died_that_we_might_LIVE

didJesus not know the Hour?

didJesus not know the Hour?

Matt. 24:35-37, “Heaven and earth will pass away, but My words shall not pass away. 36But of that day and hour no one knows, not even the angels of heaven, nor the Son, but the Father alone. 37 For the coming of the Son of Man will be just like the days of Noah.”

If Jesus is God in flesh, then shouldn’t He know what the day and hour of his return would be? After all, God knows all things. Therefore, if Jesus doesn’t know all things, then He cannot be God.

This objection is most often raised by Muslims. It is a good question.

Jesus was both God and man. He had two natures. He was divine and human at the same time. This teaching is known as the hypostatic union, that is, the coming-together of two natures in one person. In Heb. 2:9 it says Jesus was “. . . made for a little while lower than the angels . . .” Also, in Phil. 2:5-8 it says that Jesus “emptied Himself, taking the form of a bond-servant, and being made in the likeness of men . . .” Col. 2:9 says, “For in Him all the fullness of Deity dwells in bodily form.” Jesus was both God and man at the same time.

As a man, Jesus cooperated with the limitations of being a man. That is why we have verses like Luke 2:52 that says “Jesus kept increasing in wisdom and stature, and in favor with God and men.” Therefore, at this point in His ministry He could say He did not know the day nor hour of His return. It is not a denial of His being God but a confirmation of His being man.

Also, the logic that Jesus could not be God because He did not know all things works both ways. If we could find a scripture where Jesus does know all things, then that would prove He was God, wouldn’t it?

He said to him the third time, “Simon, son of John, do you love Me?” Peter was grieved because He said to him the third time, “Do you love Me?” And he said to Him, “Lord, You know all things; You know that I love You.” Jesus said to him, “Tend My sheep” (John 21:17–NASB).

Jesus did not correct Peter and say, “Hold on Peter, I do not know all things.” He let Peter continue on with his statement that Jesus knew all things. Therefore, it must be true.

What if we have a verse that says Jesus did not know all things and another that says he did know all things, then isn’t that a contradiction? No, it is not.

Before Jesus’ crucifixion and resurrection He said the Father alone knew the day and hour of His return. It wasn’t until after Jesus’ crucifixion and resurrection that omniscience was attributed to Jesus. As I said before, Jesus was cooperating with the limitations of being a man and completed His ministry on this earth. He was then glorified in His resurrection. Yet, He was still a man (cf. Col. 2:9; 1 Tim. 2:5). After Jesus’ resurrection, He was able to appear and disappear at will. This is not the normal ability of a man; it is, apparently, the normal ability of a resurrected and glorified man. Jesus was different after the resurrection. There had been a change. He was still a man, and He knew all things.

Jesus Did Not Know The Day Or Hour Of His Second Coming

Jesus Did Not Know The Day Or Hour Of His Second Coming

God is All-Knowing But JESUS DOESN’T KNOW THE DAY OR HOUR OF HIS SECOND COMING!

Mark 13:32 (Matthew 24:36)
“But about that day or hour no one knows, NOT EVEN THE ANGELS IN HEAVEN, nor the Son, but only the Father.

The basic rule in the Bible interpretations is to sum up the words of God about a topic or an issue to determine the truth and then HARMONIZE the words.
Psalm 119:160 ►
The sum of your word is truth,

From the CONTEXTS of both Matthew and Mark, Jesus is able to tell the disciples the many signs that will signal the nearness of the second coming, isn’t it strange if you will think He is ignorant of the time?

Now, Let us sum up the words of God:
The Bible says that Jesus is all-knowing.
John 21:17
“‘Simon, son of John, do you love Me?’ Peter was grieved because He said to him the third time, ‘Do you love Me?’ And he said to Him, ‘Lord, YOU KNOW ALL THINGS; You know that I love You’

John 16:30
Thus his disciples said, truly, “Now we know that YOU KNOW ALL THINGS, and have no need for anyone to question You; by this we believe that You came from God”

But why Mark and Matthew said Jesus does NOT KNOW THE time of His second coming? This will CONTRADICT the other words of God saying that Jesus knows all things. Is this really what Mark and Matthew want to say? Let me remind you people that you are reading ENGLISH TRANSLATIONS not the language it is originally written.

The word “know” used in Mark 13: 32 and Matthew 24:36 is from the Greek word ‘’eido’’ which can be translated to mean to know or make known.
From Strong’s Greek Dictionary:
1492. eido, i’-do; a prim. verb; used only in certain past tenses, the others being borrowed from the equiv. G3700 and G3708; prop. to see (lit. or fig.); by impl. (in the perf. only) to know:–be aware, behold, X can (+ not tell), consider, (have) known (-ledge), look (on), perceive, see, be sure, tell, understand, wist, wot. Comp. G3700.

Now note how the word “Eido” is used in the other Bible verse:
1 Cor 2:2 For I determined not to know (eido) any thing among you, save Jesus Christ, and him crucified.
In the above verse, Paul is saying that his only desire is to make known Jesus, in other words to preach the Gospel

Apply it to Mark 13:32 (Matthew 24:36) can be paraphrased as:
“But about that day or hour no one will make known, not even the angels in heaven, nor the Son, but only the Father.
Or in other words, Jesus was saying that NOBODY can proclaim or reveal the time of His coming neither Him nor the angels BUT THE FATHER. The phrase “not even the angels” is the CLUE. Why would Jesus mix up the angels if it is a top secret of God, right?

The Hebrew word for “angel” is mal’ak (Strong’s Hebrew: 4397) which means Messenger. One of the jobs of angel is to bring/ proclaim/ reveal news to mankind. Jesus was saying that concerning the time of His second coming it is NOT the job of angels nor His Job but the Father’s to make it known or reveal to mankind!

*******************
Another way of understanding Matthew 24:36 (Mark 13:32) is through Jesus’ parables of the Ten Virgins in Matthew 25. Jesus was the groom in the parable. While He was on earth He refers to Himself as the bridegroom (Matthew 9:14-15). In the parable, the Kingdom of Heaven (Church) was likened to the “Ten Virgins” Church is composed of sanctified, purified people who were cleansed by His blood so they were compared to virgins. Church is the bride.

In the ancient Jewish wedding tradition, the bridegroom’s father arranges the wedding (Matthew 22:2). During the engagement period the groom prepares everything for the bride (Jesus is now preparing mansion for His bride in John 14:2), When everything is ready someone will announce the coming of the groom(Matthew 25:6). In His second coming according to Jesus it is HIS FATHER’S privilege to do the announcement.

So in Matthew 24:36 Jesus is not saying that He is ignorant of the hour of His second coming, but rather, He cannot reveal it, neither can angels, because according to the Jewish wedding protocol, it is reserved for the Father’s groom only to announce that the groom is coming!

Jesus is God!

Is Jesus Eligible to be the Messiah?

Is Jesus Eligible to be the Messiah?

The Genealogies of Jesus

by Jeffrey J. Harrison

from https://totheends.com/eligible.htm

There is an objection to Jesus as the Messiah that penetrates right to the heart of Christian teaching. The argument is that Jesus, since he had no earthly father, cannot be a direct male descendant of David, and that he therefore cannot be the Messiah. Is this a valid objection?

A version of this objection came to my attention recently in an article explaining Why Jews Don’t Believe in Jesus by Rabbi Shraga Simmons at www.aish.com. Most of the reasons given are familiar objections that can easily be refuted. But there was one point that presents a more serious challenge to Christian belief. Here’s the point as made in the article (the second part of point 2B in the original article together with its footnote). I have added the numbers in bold for easier reference.

[1]“The Messiah must be descended on his father’s side from King David (see Genesis 49:10, Isaiah 11:1, Jeremiah 23:5, 33:17; Ezekiel 34:23-24). According to the Christian claim that Jesus was the product of a virgin birth, he had no father and thus could not have possibly fulfilled the messianic requirement of being descended on his father’s side from King David.

[Footnote 1] “In response, it is claimed that Joseph adopted Jesus, and passed on his genealogy via adoption. There are two problems with this claim:

“a) There is no Biblical basis for the idea of a father passing on his tribal line by adoption. A priest who adopts a son from another tribe cannot make him a priest by adoption;

“b) Joseph could never pass on by adoption that which he doesn’t have. Because Joseph descended from Jeconiah (Matthew 1:11) he fell under the curse of that king that none of his descendants could ever sit as king upon the throne of David. (Jeremiah 22:30; 36:30)…

[2]“To answer this difficult problem, apologists claim that Jesus traces himself back to King David through his mother Mary, who allegedly descends from David, as shown in the third chapter of Luke. There are four basic problems with this claim:

“a) There is no evidence that Mary descends from David. The third chapter of Luke traces Joseph’s genealogy, not Mary’s.

“b) Even if Mary can trace herself back to David, that doesn’t help Jesus, since tribal affiliation goes only through the father, not mother. Cf. Numbers 1:18; Ezra 2:59.

“c) Even if family line could go through the mother, Mary was not from a legitimate Messianic family. According to the Bible, the Messiah must be a descendent of David through his son Solomon (2 Samuel 7:14; 1 Chronicles 17:11-14, 22:9-10, 28:4-6). The third chapter of Luke is irrelevant to this discussion because it describes the lineage of David’s son Nathan, not Solomon. (Luke 3:31)

“d) Luke 3:27 lists Shealtiel and Zerubbabel in his genealogy. These two also appear in Matthew 1:12 as descendants of the cursed Jeconiah. If Mary descends from them, it would also disqualify her from being a messianic progenitor.”

This objection makes use of the genealogies of Jesus found in Matthew 1:1-17 and Luke 3:23-38. As anyone can see that reads through them, these two genealogies match up before the time of King David,* but are quite different after David, giving them the appearance of being the genealogies of two different people, both of whom are descendants of David. Christians have responded to this discrepancy in several different ways, but the most obvious answer is that the genealogy in Matthew is that of Joseph, Jesus’ adoptive father, and the genealogy in Luke is that of Mary.**

* Luke traces Jesus’ ancestry to Adam, Matthew begins with Abraham.

** This approach can be documented back to the 8th cent. AD. Before that (from the 3rd cent.), levirate marriage was used to explain that both genealogies belonged to Joseph, an explanation still accepted by many traditional churches today. The weakness of this approach is that it introduces individuals and marriages about which Scripture is silent.

Evidence to support the view that these are the genealogies of Joseph and Mary are given by the genealogies themselves. The genealogy in Matthew directly claims to be that of Joseph (“…Jacob was the father of Joseph the husband of Mary,” Matt. 1:16).* But Luke traces Jesus’ lineage through Eli rather than Joseph: Jesus…being a son, as was supposed, of Joseph, [but actually] the son [i.e. the descendant] of Eli (Luke 3:23).** Since Jesus’ actual physical descent was through Mary, his closest male ancestor would be Mary’s father, Eli.*** This makes Luke’s genealogy a record of Mary’s ancestry (versus Simmons’ objection in 2a above).

* Matthew is careful not to say that Joseph was the father of Jesus, as with the other births in his genealogy, but rather that he was the husband of Mary, from whom was born Jesus, the one called Christ (Matt. 1:16).
** The word “son” in Hebrew can be used of multi-generational descent, as in the English word “descendant.”
*** That Eli was Mary’s father may also be confirmed by the rabbis of the Jerusalem Talmud. Here a Mary the daughter of Eli is mentioned in an uncomplimentary setting (Tractate Hagigah 2:2, given as 77d in John Lightfoot, Commentary On the New Testament from the Talmud and Hebraica, 1674, Hendrickson Publishers, Inc., 1995, 2nd ed., vol. 1, p. v; vol. 3, p. 55). This may be one of several instances in rabbinical writings in which characters from the New Testament are presented in a negative light, often with veiled names or descriptions. However, the text of modern versions does not match that used by Lightfoot. This may have been an intentional change to obscure the reference, as was done with other controversial Talmudic passages. The traditional names of Joachim and Anna for the parents of Mary come from The Protoevangelium of James (also known as the Gospel of James), a fictitious writing filled with historical inaccuracies (2nd cent.).

According to the objection in point 1 above, if Jesus was the product of a virgin birth, then Joseph was not his physical father, and Joseph’s descent from David is irrelevant to the question of Jesus being the Messiah. Further, and this is the more troubling part (point 1b above), even if we admit the relevance of Joseph’s descent, the Messiah cannot be a product of the genealogy in Matthew because it includes King Jeconiah of Judah, of whom the prophet Jeremiah said that no descendant would ever sit on David’s throne again (Matt. 1:11)!

The relevant verse here is Jeremiah 22:30, which in speaking of King Jeconiah (or Coniah, also known as Jehoiachin), says: This is what the Lord has said: Write this man down stripped of male children [i.e. record him as being without male heirs]. He will not prosper in his days, for no man of his seed will prosper sitting on the throne of David and ruling again in Judah. A similar idea appears in Jeremiah 36:30, where the prophet says of King Jehoiakim, Jeconiah’s father, He will not have anyone sitting on the throne of David.

The simplest way to dismiss this problem is to understand these prophecies to apply only to the lifetime of Jeconiah (in his days in Jer. 22:30) or to some other limited period of time (he will not have in Jer. 36:30 does not necessarily mean forever). And in this sense they certainly were fulfilled in Jeconiah’s lifetime: Zedekiah, the uncle of Jeconiah and brother of Jehoiakim, who reigned as the last king of Judah, was a descendant of neither of them (2 Kings 24:17-25:7).

But there was also a sense in which Jeconiah was the last legitimate king of Judah, and that the Davidic line had ended with him. This can be seen in the nostalgic closing verses of 2 Kings that mention Jeconiah as a prisoner in Babylon (2 Kings 25:27-30; Zedekiah is not mentioned). It can also be seen in the ancestry of Zerubbabel, the leader of the Jewish people when they returned from exile. His ancestry is traced to Jeconiah (by way of Jeconiah’s son Shealtiel, Ezra 3:2, Hag. 1:1; though Zerubbabel himself did not rule as king). This extends the significance of the prophecy of Jeremiah over a much longer period of time.

On its own, this doesn’t threaten the Christian understanding of Jesus as Messiah. Because as Rabbi Simmons correctly mentions, we can fall back on the genealogy of Mary in Luke, which also traces Jesus’ ancestry from David, although not through the ruling line of Solomon that led to Jeconiah, but rather through Solomon’s brother Nathan.

He objects, though, to using the genealogy in Luke because the Messiah must be descended on his father’s side from King David (point 1). But the verses he provides to support this claim say nothing about this requirement. Genesis 49:10 says only that the Messiah will be of the tribe of Judah (The scepter will not depart from Judah…until he whose it is [the Messiah] comes.* Isaiah says only that he will be a descendant of Jesse (who was the father of King David, Isa. 11:1). Jeremiah says only that he will be a descendant of David himself (Jer. 23:5, 33:17). And Ezekiel calls the Messiah my servant David, which tells us nothing at all about his descent (Eze. 34:23,24). So there is no valid Biblical reason why the Messiah cannot be descended from David on his mother’s side.

* Shiloh that appears here in some translations means literally he whose it is in Hebrew.

But there is a second, more serious, level to this objection: that the Messianic promises given to David were through his son, Solomon (point 2c). It’s true that this is explicitly stated in 1 Chronicles 22:9-10 (his name will be Solomon…and I will establish the throne of his kingdom over Israel forever; also 1 Chron. 28:4-6). But the prophecy was given with a condition: if you are careful to observe the statutes and the legal decisions that the Lord commanded (1 Chron. 22:13, 28:7). Since Solomon later fell away from the Lord and died in disgrace, it’s obvious that this promise was withdrawn and the promises to David were fulfilled through someone else. That’s why later prophets were looking for a Davidic and not a Solomonic Messiah. So in fact there is no reason why we cannot rely on the genealogy in Luke through Mary and her father to establish Jesus’ descent from David.

The objection that tribal affiliation is only through the father (point 2b) is not always true. In 1 Chron. 2:34-35, an Israelite man with no sons (Sheshan) gave his daughter to an Egyptian slave—who obviously had no tribal affiliation with Israel. Yet their descendants are counted as being descendants of their grandfather Sheshan and members of his tribe. In the same way, since Mary was still living at home and Joseph was not the father of her child, there would be no one else to trace Jesus’ heritage through other than Mary and her father. This is exactly the implication of Luke 3:23: that Jesus was a descendant of Eli.*

* Tribal inheritance could also be passed through daughters (Num. 27:7ff, 36:6-8). This is the story of the daughters of Zelophehad, who received a hereditary possession among their father’s brothers, and you will transfer the inheritance of their father to them (Num. 27:7). This might well have been the case with Mary, since only her sister is mentioned, and not a brother (John 19:25).

The additional objection that Mary’s lineage also traces through King Jeconiah (point 2d) is easily overturned: the Shealtiel and Zerubbabel of Luke 3:27 have different ancestors and children than the Shealtiel and Zerubbabel of the royal line in Matt. 1:12ff. Anyone who has spent any time doing genealogy knows the danger of similar name combinations when other details don’t match up. There is no evidence that the Shealtiel and Zerubbabel of Luke are the same as those mentioned in Matthew. In fact, the genealogies themselves clearly show they are not.

So there is no serious objection to accepting Luke’s genealogy as the actual physical genealogy of Jesus through his grandfather Eli and his mother Mary. He was a physical descendant of King David, and therefore eligible to fulfill the prophecies pointing to the Messiah.

So what, then, is the purpose of Matthew’s genealogy? Jesus was born into the betrothed relationship of Joseph and Mary, which was legally a family unit (Matt. 1:18; among the Jewish people, betrothal [kiddushin] established a legal marriage, though not yet consummated). If accepted by the husband, the child became legally part of the family, which Joseph did when he took Mary as his wife (Matt. 1:24-25; that he took her means that they proceeded to the second stage of marriage [nissuin] in which they began living together). In this way, Jesus could also legally restore the royal line from Solomon through Jeconiah without being a physical descendant of Jeconiah and running afoul of Jeremiah’s prophecy. In other words, a miraculous birth was exactly what was needed both to fulfill prophecy and to reestablish the royal line of David. As Amos prophesied: In that day, I will raise up the booth of David which is fallen and I will close up their breaches and his ruins I will raise up; and I will build it as in the days of old (Amos 9:11).

Deity Of Christ

Deity Of Christ

TEN PROOFS WHY JESUS IS GOD

At a crucial point in his ministry, Jesus asked his disciples,“Who do you say that I am?” (Matthew 16:15). The answer to this question is more important than anything else. Nevertheless, today, just as in Jesus’ day, when Christians ask people the question “who do you say Jesus is?” There are various answers given concerning his identity. But what does the New Testament tell us about who Jesus is?

Understanding the deity of Jesus is fundamental in defending the truth of the Christian faith.

All major religions and cults are united about one thing. They all reject the doctrine of the deity of Christ. That fact alone should tell us something. Some of these objections are a result of rationalism (“reason” is supreme, not God) over revelation or a misunderstanding of what the doctrine teaches. Another more common objection results from revisionist history, which claims that Christ’s deity was invented at the Council of Nicaea in the 4th century and not something believed by the early church. [1]

The reason Christians believe in the deity of Jesus is that we are forced to come to this conclusion by the clear teaching of Scripture. It is important to get Jesus’ identity because if we deny the deity of Jesus then we do not have the Father (1 John 2:23; cf. John 5:23). Worse than that we are dead in our sins.

Here are 10 Scriptural proofs for the deity of Jesus Christ.

1). THE BIBLE TEACHES THAT THERE IS ONLY ONE TRUE GOD

# JESUS’ DIVINITY DOES NOT MAKE HIM ANOTHER GOD. IT IS THE FOUNDATION FOR THE DOCTRINE OF THE TRINITY.

This is vital to understand because many objectors to the deity of Jesus misunderstand and misrepresent what Christians believe about the Trinity. Christians believe what the Bible teaches — that there is only one true and living God (Deuteronomy 6:4; cf. Mark 12:29 & 1 Corinthians 8:6). However, we must not confuse monotheism (belief in one God) with Unitarianism (the belief that the being of God is shared by one person). Jesus’ divinity is part of the doctrine of the Trinity, which states that within the one Being that is God, there exists eternally three co-equal and co-eternal persons, the Father, the Son, and the Holy Spirit. Each is a distinct person, yet each is identified as God: the Father (1 Corinthians 8:6), the Son (John 1:1–3; Romans 9:5), and the Spirit (Acts 5:3–4). We must also remember that it wasn’t the Father or the Spirit who became incarnate; it was the Son (John 1:14) and He was born under the Law (Galatians 4:4). This is why, in His humanity, Jesus prays to the Father (Matthew 26:39, 42).

The doctrine of the Trinity is revealed between the Old and New Testaments through the incarnation of Jesus and the outpouring of the Holy Spirit. God did not change between the Old and New Testaments, being a Unitarian God in the Old and a Trinitarian God in the New. God has always been Triune, the only thing that changed was revelation became completed only with the New Testament; specifically revelation of the divinity of Jesus, while foreshadowed in the Old Testament, is only completed in the New Testament.

The Old Testament clearly teaches that there is a plurality in the Godhead. This fact which was accepted by the ancient Jewish church and early Rabbinic thought will be the subject of a new post in preparation. For the purposes of this one it is sufficient to state that the Hebrew Bible clearly teaches the Messiah would be God. (eg Isaiah 7:14; 9:6-7; Jeremiah 23:5-6; Micah 5:2; Zechariah 2:10-11)

2). THE BIBLE TEACHES THAT JESUS PRE-EXISTED CREATION

The New Testament in several passages clearly teaches that Jesus existed in eternity past before his birth in Bethlehem.

Genesis 1:1 tells us, “In the beginning God created the heavens and the earth.” In John 1:1 we read the same words, “In the beginning.”8 John informs us in John 1:1 that in the beginning was the Word (logos) and that the Word was not only with God but was God. This Word is the one who brought all things into being at creation (John 1:3). John 1:1 teaches that the Word is eternal, the Word has had an eternal relationship with the Father, and the Word as to His nature is deity. The clincher is John 1:14: “And the Word became flesh and dwelt among us, and we beheld His glory, the glory as of the only begotten of the Father, full of grace and truth.”

Jesus applied God’s title “I am” to Himself and identifies as God who appeared to Abraham in Genesis 18:

“Your father Abraham was overjoyed that he would see My day; he saw it and rejoiced.” The Jews replied, “You aren’t 50 years old yet, and You’ve seen Abraham?” Jesus said to them, “I assure you: Before Abraham was, I am.” (John 8:56-58)

In his prayer in John 17 Jesus both refers to his pre-existence and uses terminology that can only be used about deity:

“And this is eternal life, that they know you the only true God, and Jesus Christ whom you have sent. I glorified you on earth, having accomplished the work that you gave me to do. And now, Father, glorify me in your own presence with the glory that I had with you before the world existed.” (John 17:3-5)

“Father, I desire that they also whom You gave Me may be with Me where I am, that they may behold My glory which You have given Me; for You loved Me before the foundation of the world.”
(John 17:24)

To have eternal life is to know two persons: both the Father and Jesus (see John 14:6-7; John 16:3). But notice, Jesus is distinguished from the Father because Jesus is the one speaking to the Father. The personal pronouns (me, your, you) clearly show that this is one person speaking to another, (elsewhere collectively as “we” and “our” when Jesus addressed the disciples, as in John 14:23). In John 17, the Son is speaking of the glory He has shared with the Father before the world was; the words “in your own presence” refer to their sharing of divine glory. John 17:3–5 is not an example of the “human side” praying to the “divine side” but of a divine, yet incarnate (John 1:14) person, the Son, communicating with a divine, but non-incarnate person, the Father in heaven.

Paul’s words in Philippians 2:5–8 teach not only the deity of Jesus but also the distinct personhood of the Son prior to His incarnation. In this passage, Paul exhorts the Philippians to have the same attitude as Christ Jesus who “existed in the form of God.” These words come before the verbs emptied, taking, and becoming and point to the pre-existence of the one “existing in the form of God.” Moreover, Jesus did not regard the equality He had with God the Father, in eternity past, something to be held on to. Instead He “made himself nothing” by doing two things: taking the form of a bond-servant and being made in the likeness of men. Having entered into human existence He humbled himself to death on the Cross. Because of this, every knee will bow and every tongue will confess that Jesus is Lord” (Philippians 2:10–11); it is only God who is to be worshipped as Lord (see Isaiah 45:23).

3). JESUS IS CREATOR NOT CREATURE

Jehovah’s Witnesses (and Muslims) hang on to Paul’s statement in Colossians 1:15 that the “firstborn of all creation” teaches that Jesus was a created being. However, this JW false teaching resembles the view of the ancient Colossian heresy that Paul had to combat. It’s another example of mistakenly trying to make a doctrine from a single verse, when no core doctrines are ever established in isolated verses, and it ignores a fundamental rule of interpretation that Scripture must harmonise.

The Colossian false teachers advocated the idea that Jesus was the first of many other created mediators between God and men. By using the specific Greek word prōtotokos, “firstborn,” Paul rules out the idea of Jesus as a created being. “Firstborn” does not mean “first created.” Rather, Paul uses a term that was based on the ancient designation of the authority, or pre-eminence, metaphorically given to the firstborn (Genesis 49:3–4; Exodus 4:22). In the same way, David, the youngest of Jesse, was named “firstborn” (Psalm 89:20–27) who ruled Israel. Manasseh was born to Joseph first, but Ephraim, his younger brother, was “firstborn” due to his position as given by Jacob/Israel (Genesis 48:13–20, Jeremiah 31:9).

# BY DESCRIBING JESUS AS THE “FIRSTBORN OVER ALL CREATION,” PAUL IS SAYING THAT HE IS THE ABSOLUTE RULER OVER ALL CREATION.

Furthermore, if Paul had wanted to describe Jesus as a created being, he could have used the Greek word protoktistos, which means “first created.” So why didn’t he use it? Because Paul did not believe Jesus was created. By describing Jesus as the “firstborn over all creation,” Paul is saying that he is the absolute ruler over all creation.

The evidence that Jesus is supreme over all creation is found in Colossians 1:16. Here, Paul absolutely rules out the idea that Jesus is a created being because he presents Jesus as the Creator of the entire universe which exists by his creative power (John 1:1–3; Hebrews 1:2, 8–10). The reason Jesus can “create all things” is that “in Him dwells all the fullness of the Godhead bodily” (Colossians 2:9). The Greek word for “Godhead,” theotēs, refers to “the state of being God.” It is only God who can create (Isaiah 42:5, 44:24, 45:18).

4). JESUS SELF IDENTIFIES AS GOD

At the Feast of Tabernacles/Booths in his encounter with the Pharisees (John 8:13), Jesus told them, “I told you that you would die in your sins, for unless you believe that I am He you will die in your sins” (John 8:24). The Jewish people reacted to Jesus’ statement by asking him, “Who are you?” (John 8:25).

Jesus told the Jews exactly who he is: “Truly, truly, I say to you, before Abraham was, I am” (John 8:58). This “I am” (ego eimi) statement was Jesus’ clearest example of His proclamation, “I am Yahweh,” from its background in the book of Isaiah (Isaiah 41:4; 43:10–13, 25; 46:4; 48:12; cf. John 13:19).

These are the very words (ego eimi) ) that caused the Roman soldiers to fall to the ground after they came to arrest Jesus (John 18:6). Jesus’ explicit identification of himself with Yahweh of the Old Testament is why the Jewish leaders wanted to stone Him for blasphemy (see John 5:18; 10:33).

5). THE APOSTLES IDENTIFIED JESUS AS DIVINE (AND GAVE THEIR LIVES FOR THEIR WITNESS)

Both Jesus and His apostles identified Jesus as divine. The Apostle Peter described Jesus as “our God and Savior” (2 Peter 1:1; cf. Titus 2:13) and called on believers to “honor Christ the Lord as holy” (1 Peter 3:15). Jesus’ own half-brother James, who was an unbeliever at first (John 7:5), described him as “the Lord of glory” (James 2:1; cf. 1 Corinthians 2:8; Psalm 24:7–8). What mere man or prophet could or was ever described in this way?

The Apostle John also attributed titles to Jesus that were used only of God by describing him as the “Alpha and Omega” and the “First and the Last” (Revelation 22:13; 1:8, 17–18; cf. Isaiah 44:6).

The writer of Hebrews also gives insight into the identity of Jesus In Hebrews 1, Jesus (the Son) is identified as superior to any prophet (vv. 1–2), above the angels (v. 5), worthy of our worship (vv. 6–8; cf. Psalm 45:6–7), and the creator of all things who is unchangeable (vv. 2–3, 10; cf. Psalm 102:25). Hebrews further states that Jesus is “seated at the right hand of the throne of God” (Hebrews 12:2; cf. Acts 2:30).

6). THE JEWS RECOGNISED JESUS CLAIM TO DIVINITY

The clearest evidence for the deity of Jesus is the Jewish leaders’ reaction to Jesus’ words and actions. (This is where Jews are at least more honest than Muslims with their blank denials). In Mark 2, Jesus not only heals a paralytic but also forgives his sins (Mark 2:5). This is the reason that the scribes cry blasphemy, for it is God alone who can forgive sins. (Mark 2:7)

Time and again, the charge of blasphemy is brought against Jesus:

“Jesus answered them, “Many good works I have shown you from My Father. For which of those works do you stone Me?” The Jews answered Him, saying, “For a good work we do not stone You, but for blasphemy, and because You, being a Man, make Yourself God.” (John 10:32-33)

In his trial before the Sanhedrin Jesus is once again charged with blasphemy because of his response to the high priest’s question: “Are you the Christ, the Son of the Blessed?” (Mark 14:61) Jesus responded, “I am, and you will see the Son of Man sitting at the right hand of Power, and coming with the clouds of heaven” (Mark 14:62). Then the high priest tore his clothes, charged Jesus with blasphemy, and condemned him to death (Mark 14:64). Why did the high priest respond that way? Because Jesus quoted from Psalm 110:1 and Daniel 7:13–14 and applied the words to himself. In Daniel 7 the divine Son of Man comes before the Ancient of Days, and all peoples and nations serve him. The Pharisees recognize Jesus’ divine claim here and charge him with blasphemy, intending to put him to death.

For more on Mark 14;62 see Post: “FOUR WAYS JESUS SAID HE IS GOD IN ONE SENTENCE”

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7). THE EARLY CHURCH PRAYED TO JESUS

Prayer (a particular form of worship), is something that should be addressed to God alone, but Jesus calls his disciples to pray to him (John 14:13–14; 16:26). When Stephen is being stoned to death, he calls out to the Lord Jesus to receive his spirit. (Acts 7:59)

The term for “calling on” (epikaloumenon) recalls the appeal of Peter to the people in Acts 2:21 to “call on” (epikaleshtai – Strongs G1941) the Lord to be saved. Paul uses the same word to describe the Corinthians as those who “call upon [epikaleo] the name of our Lord Jesus Christ” (1 Corinthians 1:2). In the Old Testament, people “called on” on the name of Yahweh (Joel 2:32). The Corinthians were people who addressed Jesus as Lord in prayer.

According to Paul, New Testament Christians were everywhere praying to Jesus.

“Paul. . . to the church of God in Corinth, to those sanctified in Christ Jesus and called to be holy, together with all those everywhere who call on the name of our Lord Jesus Christ—their Lord and ours.” (1 Corinthians 1:1–2).

It appears that Paul includes himself among those who called upon the name of Jesus. These prayers directed to Jesus were universal. And the present tense of “call” suggests that the prayers were on-going.

Again in Romans we find: “whoever calls upon the name of the Lord shall be saved” (Romans 10:13). What is that name if not Jesus?

The very last prayer in the New Testament is addressed to Jesus by the Apostle John: “Even so come, Lord Jesus!” (Revelation 22:20). If it were wrong to petition Christ, John the inspired writer might have said, “Father, may the Son come.” But instead he gave us these words to also cry out to Jesus: “Even so, come!”

And in John 14:14 Jesus claims that He will answer our petitions. Jesus here says that He would answer prayer when we asked him anything in His name. So Jesus authorizes us to address Him in prayer when we come in His name—in His own authority, and in His will. And He promised that He would answer. Muslims who alone hears and answers prayers?

Prayers to Jesus are permitted and encouraged by Christ’s teaching in John 14:14, and by any passage in which Jesus says that we are to pray in His name. When Jesus told us to pray in His name, He wasn’t asking us to use a particular phrase at the end of each of our prayers, though the expression “in Jesus’ name, Amen” is certainly appropriate, and God-honoring. Jesus was actually asking us to come to God (any person of the Trinity) in His authority. We have the right to come to God and receive grace and help because of who Christ is, what He did for us, and what He promised. Indeed it is ONLY because of Christ that we have access to God at all.

“Jesus told him, “I am the way, the truth, and the life. No one comes to the Father except through Me.” (John 14:6) Those words apply just as much to our prayers as to our eternal destiny.

In John 10, Jesus claims that He knows His followers, His “sheep,” and that He calls them all by name. If our Shepherd calls us by our name (a most comforting thought), then why shouldn’t we also call upon Him by His name? At the very least, this passage indicates that real Christians have a personal, one-on-one, intimate relationship with Jesus. This enables us to talk to Jesus and listen for His voice.

Again, can we be at “at home” with Jesus and not be able to talk to Him directly?

“Jesus answered, “If anyone loves Me, he will keep My word. My Father will love him, and We will come to him and make Our home with him.” (John 14:23)

And lest anyone suppose that praying to God as a man is a New Testament novelty, there is Old Testament precedent. Abraham did it when confronted by God who appeared to him as three men:

“My Lord, if now I have found favour in thy sight, pass not away, I pray thee, from thy servant” (Genesis 18:3 KJV)

8). THE EARLY CHURCH WORSHIPPED JESUS

Jesus accepted and never refused worship from people (Matthew 2:2, 14:33, 28:9). One of the greatest examples of this comes from the lips of Thomas when he exclaimed, “My Lord and my God!” (John 20:28). If Jesus was not divine, then Thomas made a serious error; but Jesus made no effort to correct Thomas in his worshipful accolade. On the contrary He marked it as a point of blessing to all who believe. Yet Peter (Acts 10:25–26), Paul and Barnabus (Acts 14:14–15), and the angel in Revelation (Revelation 22:8,9) all corrected others for trying to worship them, something Jesus never did.

The confession of deity here is unmistakable, clearly demonstrating that worship belongs only to God (Revelation 22:9) because Jesus accepted Thomas’s worship of him (John 20:29). Again Jesus accepts John’s worship in Revelation 1:17-18.

Also in Revelation, the elders and every creature in heaven and upon earth ascribe universal worship to “him who sits on the throne and to the Lamb” (Revelation 5:11–14; cf. John 1:29).

9). JESUS MADE CLAIMS THAT NO ORDINARY HUMAN BEING COULD EVER MAKE.

Jesus not only identified as God, but He also indicated His deity through His words and actions. Jesus said that to enter the Kingdom of Heaven we must first acknowledge and call him Lord (kurios, Romans 10:9; cf. Matthew 7:21). Just saying that Jesus is Lord does not get you into the Kingdom, but to enter the Kingdom you must confess Him as Lord. The entrance into God’s Kingdom, according to Jesus, is dependent upon a person’s knowledge of Him and His reciprocating knowledge of the person (Matthew 7:23).

Many times Jesus self identifies as our Lord and applies the title “Lord” to Himself. None more so than in the phrase “the Lord of the Sabbath” which is found in Matthew 12:8, Mark 2:28, and Luke 6:5. In all three instances Jesus is referring to Himself as the Lord of the Sabbath or, as Mark records it, “The Son of Man is Lord even of the Sabbath” (Mark 2:28). In these verses, Jesus is proclaiming that He is the One who exercises authority even over the rules and regulations that govern the Sabbath day.

As such, Jesus was proclaiming to the world, especially to the legalistic Pharisees, that He was greater than the Law and above the laws of the Mosaic Covenant because, as God in flesh, He is the Author of those laws.

Jesus even promised rest to all those who come to Him (Matthew 11:28). Could Moses have ever made a claim like this? No! How could a human being give anyone rest from the Law? Jesus also claimed, “All authority in heaven and on earth has been given to me” (Matthew 28:18). God never gave any man or prophet all authority in heaven and on earth, but this same authority was given to the Son of Man in Daniel 7:13–14 (see also Matthew 26:64).

Other examples:

“Why do you call Me ‘Lord, Lord,’ and don’t do the things I say? (Luke 6:46)

“You call Me Teacher and Lord. This is well said, for I am. So if I, your Lord and Teacher, have washed your feet, you also ought to wash one another’s feet.” (John 13:13-14)

10). JESUS IS THE SON OF GOD

Muslims often point out that the words “Son of God” are not an exclusive title for Jesus. For example, in the Old Testament Israel was called God’s son (Exodus 4:22–23; Hosea 11:1), the king was called God’s son (Psalm 2:7), and the angels were called God’s sons (Job 38:7). Even in the New Testament, Adam and believers are referred to as son/s of God (Luke 3:38; Romans 8:14).

There is, however, a fundamental difference between an adopted son and the relational Son of God, the latter being a deity by nature. More than anyone else who has walked this earth, Jesus the Messiah is uniquely entitled to be called the Son of God (John 1:49, 11:27) – “the unique One, who is himself God” (monogenēs theos – see John 1:18 NLT). [2]

In the way He describes His Oneness with the Father, His exact likeness and His obedience in transmitting and doing only what His Father does, Jesus is reinforcing that unique father/son filial relationship.

The Father in like fashion also gives us a unique endorsement of His Son. Twice Matthew records at defining moments, God the Father in heaven saying of Jesus “This is My beloved Son” (Matthew 3:17 and 17:5).

Whatever Jesus said about Himself was so provocative that it led the Jewish leaders to call for his death for blasphemy.

In Jesus’ trial before Pilate, the Jewish leaders clearly understood that Jesus’ use of this term was not just generic, for they wanted him put to death: “We have a law, and according to that law He ought to die because He has made Himself the Son of God” (John 19:7; cf. John 10:36).

According to the Law, it was blasphemy to use God’s name (Leviticus 24:16). Therefore, by referring to himself as “the Son of God”, Jesus was claiming to share “the rights and authority of God himself (cf. [John] 1:34; 5:19–30).”

Muslims who say that Jesus never claimed to be God or the Son of God, must answer why He was crucified on the charge of blasphemy. Whatever Jesus said and the way He conducted Himself, must have been sufficiently provocative enough for the Jewish leaders to call for capital punishment on that charge of blasphemy.

Mark’s account is unambiguously clear and bears repeating:

“But He kept silent and answered nothing. Again the high priest asked Him, saying to Him, “Are You the Christ, the Son of the Blessed?” Jesus said, “I am. And you will see the Son of Man sitting at the right hand of the Power, and coming with the clouds of heaven.” Then the high priest tore his clothes and said, “What further need do we have of witnesses? You have heard the BLASPHEMY! What do you think?” And they all condemned Him to be deserving of death.” (Mark 14:61-64)

See Footnote [2] for comprehensive list of verses for Jesus as The Son of God.

CONCLUSIONS

The significance of all this is that failure to believe in Jesus as the Son of God brings judgement because we are already dead in our sins (see John 3:18, Ephesians 2:1), but believing in Jesus as the Son of God who died for sins, brings eternal life (see John 3:15–17, 6:40, 20:31).

Although there may be many questions and objections raised to Jesus’ deity, the New Testament, in particular the Gospel accounts clearly provides eye-witness testimony to the words, actions, and teachings of Jesus that prove His deity beyond doubt.

Make no mistake: “Another Jesus” (2 Corinthians 11:4), a false Jesus based upon apocryphal gnostic sources, such as presented by Islam, cannot save you. Quite simply, if we do not get the identity of Jesus right, we will die in our sins (John 8:24).

Notice the substantive determining issue is NOT what Jesus taught, but who He is. Muslims your destiny is determined by how you will answer Jesus question which we must all answer,“Who do you say that I am?”

Footnotes:

[1] This claim is clearly contradicted not only by the Scripture but by the statements of the early Church. For example, the early church Father Ignatius Bishop of Antioch (AD 35–108, who was a disciple of John the Apostle) taught the divinity of Jesus: “There is one Physician who is possessed both of flesh and spirit; both made and not made; God existing in flesh; true life in death; both of Mary and of God; first possible and then impossible, even Jesus Christ our Lord. . . . But our Physician is the only true God, the unbegotten and unapproachable, the Lord of all, the Father and Begetter of the only-begotten Son. We have also as a Physician the Lord our God, Jesus the Christ, the only-begotten Son and Word, before time began, but who afterwards became also man, of Mary the virgin.” The Epistle of Ignatius to the Ephesians (Chapter VII “Beware of False Teachers,”

www.earlychristianwritings.com/text/ignatius-ephesians-longer.html).

[2] Jesus as The Son of God references:

□ Firstly, the angel Gabriel in announcing the birth of Jesus to Mary:

“And the angel answered and said unto her, The Holy Ghost shall come upon thee, and the power of the Highest shall overshadow thee: therefore also that holy thing which shall be born of thee shall be called the Son of God.” (Luke 1:35)

□ Then Jesus specifically referred to Himself as ‘The Son of God’ on at least 2 occasions:

“Jesus heard that they had cast him out; and when he had found him, he said unto him, Dost thou believe on the Son of God? He answered and said, Who is he, Lord, that I might believe on him? And Jesus said unto him, Thou hast both seen him, and it is he that talketh with thee. And he said, Lord, I believe. And he worshipped him.” (John 9:35-38)

Again in the next chapter of John:

“Say ye of him, whom the Father hath sanctified, and sent into the world, Thou blasphemest; because I said, I am the Son of God?” (John 10:36)

And a third example where Martha the sister of Lazarus uses the title Son of God of Him and Jesus did not rebuke or correct her, on the contrary He affirmed it by declaring He had the power over life and death and is THE LIFE AND RESURRECTION which power belongs to God the giver of life alone:

“Jesus said unto her, I am the resurrection, and the life: he that believeth in me, though he were dead, yet shall he live: And whosoever liveth and believeth in me shall never die. Believest thou this? She saith unto him, Yea, Lord: I believe that thou art the Christ, the Son of God, which should come into the world.” (John 11:25-27)

□ Peter’s confession blessed by Jesus

“When Jesus came to the region of Caesarea Philippi, He asked His disciples, “Who do people say that the Son of Man is?” And they said, “Some say John the Baptist; others, Elijah; still others, Jeremiah or one of the prophets.” “But you,” He asked them, “who do you say that I am?” Simon Peter answered, “You are the Messiah, the Son of the living God!” And Jesus responded, “Simon son of Jonah, you are blessed because flesh and blood did not reveal this to you, but My Father in heaven.” (Matthew 16:13-17)

□ Psalm 2:7:

“I will surely tell of the decree of the LORD: He said to Me, ‘You are My Son, Today I have begotten You.”

□ Quoted by the writer of Hebrews in 1:5 (See also Hebrews 5:5 below)

“For to which of the angels did He ever say, “YOU ARE MY SON, TODAY I HAVE BEGOTTEN YOU”? And again, “I WILL BE A FATHER TO HIM AND HE SHALL BE A SON TO ME”?”

□ Matthew 3:17:

“and behold, a voice out of the heavens said, “This is My beloved Son, in whom I am well-pleased.”

□ Matthew 17:5:

“While he was still speaking, a bright cloud overshadowed them, and behold, a voice out of the cloud said, “This is My beloved Son, with whom I am well-pleased; listen to Him!”

□ “Son of God” references in the Gospel of Mark:

“The beginning of the good news of Jesus Christ, the Son of God.” (Mark 1:1)

“And a voice came from heaven, “You are my Son, the Beloved; with you I am well pleased.” (Mark 1:11)

“and he cried out, “What have you to do with us, Jesus of Nazareth? Have you come to destroy us? I know who you are, the Holy One of God.” (Mark 1:24)

“Whenever the unclean spirits saw him, they fell down before him and shouted, “You are the Son of God!” (Mark 3:11)

“and he shouted at the top of his voice, “What have you to do with me, Jesus, Son of the Most High God? I adjure you by God, do not torment me.” (Mark 5:7)

“Those who are ashamed of me and of my words in this adulterous and sinful generation, of them the Son of Man will also be ashamed when he comes in the glory of his Father with the holy angels.” (Mark 8:38)

“Then a cloud overshadowed them, and from the cloud there came a voice, “This is my Son,the Beloved; listen to him!” (Mark 9:7)

“He had still one other, a beloved son. Finally he sent him to them, saying, ‘They will respect my son.’ (Mark 12:6)

“But about that day or hour no one knows, neither the angels in heaven, nor the Son, but only the Father. (Mark 13:32)

“He said, “Abba, Father, for you all things are possible; remove this cup from me; yet, not what I want, but what you want.” (Mark 14:36)

“But he was silent and did not answer. Again the high priest asked him, “Are you the Messiah, the Son of the Blessed One?” (Mark 14:61)

“Now when the centurion, who stood facing him, saw that in this way he breathed his last, he said, “Truly this man was God’s Son!” (Mark 15:39)

□ John 1:14:

“And the Word became flesh, and dwelt among us, and we saw His glory, glory as of the only begotten from the Father, full of grace and truth.”

□ 1 John 4:10:

“In this is love, not that we loved God, but that He loved us and sent His Son to be the propitiation for our sins.”

□ John 14:13:

“Whatever you ask in My name, that will I do, so that the Father may be glorified in the Son.”

□ John 5:19:

“Therefore Jesus answered and was saying to them, “Truly, truly, I say to you, the Son can do nothing of Himself, unless it is something He sees the Father doing; for whatever the Father does, these things the Son also does in like manner.”

□ John 5:22-23:

“The Father, in fact, judges no one but has given all judgment to the Son, so that all people will honor the Son just as they honor the Father. Anyone who does not honor the Son does not honor the Father who sent Him.”

□ John 5:26

“For just as the Father has life in Himself, even so He gave to the Son also to have life in Himself;”

□ Luke 8:28:

“Seeing Jesus, he cried out and fell before Him, and said in a loud voice, “What business do we have with each other, Jesus, Son of the Most High God? I beg You, do not torment me.”

□ Acts 13:33:

“that God has fulfilled this promise to our children in that He raised up Jesus, as it is also written in the second Psalm, ‘YOU ARE MY SON; TODAY I HAVE BEGOTTEN YOU.’ “

□ Hebrews 5:5:

“So also Christ did not glorify Himself so as to become a high priest, but He who said to Him, “YOU ARE MY SON, TODAY I HAVE BEGOTTEN YOU.” “

□ Luke 3:22:

“and the Holy Spirit descended upon Him in bodily form like a dove, and a voice came out of heaven, “You are My beloved Son, in You I am well-pleased.”

□ 2 Peter 1:17

“For when He received honor and glory from God the Father, such an utterance as this was made to Him by the Majestic Glory, “This is My beloved Son with whom I am well-pleased”-“

□ Luke 9:35:

“Then a voice came out of the cloud, saying, “This is My Son, My Chosen One; listen to Him!””

□ Romans 1:4:

“who was declared the Son of God with power by the resurrection from the dead, according to the Spirit of holiness, Jesus Christ our Lord,”

□ Matthew 2:15:

“He remained there until the death of Herod. This was to fulfill what had been spoken by the Lord through the prophet: “OUT OF EGYPT I CALLED MY SON.”

□ Luke 20:13 -14:

“The owner of the vineyard said, ‘What shall I do? I will send my beloved son; perhaps they will respect him.’ But when the tenant farmers saw him, they discussed it among themselves and said, ‘This is the heir. Let’s kill him, so the inheritance will be ours!’ ” (See also Matthew 21:33-41)

□ Hebrews 1:8 (quoting Psalm 45:6-7):

“But of the Son He says, “YOUR THRONE, O GOD, IS FOREVER AND EVER, AND THE RIGHTEOUS SCEPTER IS THE SCEPTER OF HIS KINGDOM.”

□ 1 John 5:9:

“If we receive the testimony of men, the testimony of God is greater; for the testimony of God is this, that He has testified concerning His Son.”

22 Scriptures that Prove Jesus is God

1). The Father calls His Son (Jesus) God
Hebrews 1:8

“8 But unto the Son he saith, Thy throne, O God, is for ever and ever: a sceptre of righteousness is the sceptre of thy kingdom.”

2). Revelation 1:7-8 says that Jesus is the Almighty.

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Jesus humbled state and what it means

Jesus humbled state and what it means

Jesus’ humbled state and what it means

Many of the non-Christian cults attack the deity of Christ by citing verses such as Jesus not knowing something (Matt. 24:36), where He is growing in wisdom (Luke 2:52), or says that the Father is greater than He (John 14:28). They claim that if Jesus was God He would know all things, would not grow in wisdom, and would not be lesser than the Father — and this is where their analysis stops. Unfortunately, they either purposely (because it doesn’t suit them) or accidentally (through ignorance) skip the biblical references dealing with Jesus in His humbled state where He functioned completely as a man under the Law of God.

Furthermore, those in cults very often fail to incorporate the standard Christian response to their criticisms of Jesus’ deity. That is, instead of responding to and including the Christian answers, they continue to ask the same questions and raise the same points ignoring the answers to their objections. Sometimes they say that the Christian answers don’t make any sense. But that is almost always a blanket complaint to brush away our answers because they do not like them or understand them, not because they are illogical or unbiblical.

Nevertheless, I will address those scriptures and concepts the cults raise to deny the deity of Christ and show why their reasoning is incorrect. I will do this by relating to the fact that Jesus was in a humbled state and under the Law.

Jesus’ incarnation: God in flesh. Hypostatic Union
The nature and natural effects of Jesus’ humbled state
Scriptures dealing with Jesus in His humbled state
1. Jesus’ incarnation: God in flesh. The Hypostatic Union
Perhaps the most commonly misunderstood Christian doctrines among the cults is the Hypostatic Union; that is, that in the single person of Jesus there are two natures: human and divine. John 1:1,14 says, “In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God…14And the Word became flesh, and dwelt among us, and we beheld His glory, glory as of the only begotten from the Father, full of grace and truth.”

There is absolutely no logical reason why Jesus cannot be both human and divine at the same time. It is not a logical impossibility. The question is whether or not it is a biblical teaching. What does the Bible say?

John 1:1,14, “In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God….14And the Word became flesh, and dwelt among us, and we beheld His glory, glory as of the only begotten from the Father, full of grace and truth.”
John 20:28, “Thomas answered and said to Him, “My Lord and my God!”
Col. 2:9, “For in Him [Jesus] all the fullness of Deity dwells in bodily form.”
Col. 1:19, “For it was the Father’s good pleasure for all the fullness to dwell in Him,”
Phil. 2:6-8, “…although He [Jesus] existed in the form of God, did not regard equality with God a thing to be grasped, 7but emptied Himself, taking the form of a bond-servant, and being made in the likeness of men. 8And being found in appearance as a man, He humbled Himself by becoming obedient to the point of death, even death on a cross.”
Heb. 1:8, “But of the Son He says, “Thy throne, O God, is forever and ever, and the righteous scepter is the scepter of His kingdom.”
Following is a small chart referencing the Scriptures that support the doctrine that Jesus is both God and Man at the same time. It is not exhaustive but it can help you quickly see that scripture points to both Jesus’ humanity as well as His deity.

Jesus as God Jesus as Man
He is worshiped (Matt. 2:2,11; 14:33). He worshiped the Father (John 17).
He was called God (John 20:28; Heb. 1:8) He was called man (Mark 15:39; John 19:5).
He was called Son of God (Mark 1:1) He was called Son of Man (John 9:35-37)
He is prayed to (Acts 7:59; 1 Cor. 1:2). He prayed to the Father (John 17).
He is sinless (1 Pet. 2:22; Heb. 4:15). He was tempted (Matt. 4:1).
He knows all things (John 21:17). He grew in wisdom (Luke 2:52).
He gives eternal life (John 10:28). He died (Rom. 5:8).
All the fullness of deity dwells in Him (Col. 2:9). He has a body of flesh and bones (Luke 24:39).
Therefore, Jesus is one person with two natures: divine and human. This is not a logical impossibility and it is something that is supported in scripture.

2. The nature and natural effects of Jesus’ humbled state
As a man and as a Jew, Jesus was in a humbled state, under the Law, and lower than the angels. As a result of these conditions, Jesus had to operate in agreement with His humbled condition; that is, He had to act as a man, completely as a man who was under the Law of God. Let’s review:

Incarnation of Jesus means that the Word became flesh, became a man.
John 1:1,14, “In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God…14And the Word became flesh, and dwelt among us, and we beheld His glory, glory as of the only begotten from the Father, full of grace and truth.”
Jesus emptied Himself
Phil. 2:5-8, “Have this attitude in yourselves which was also in Christ Jesus, 6who, although He existed in the form of God, did not regard equality with God a thing to be grasped, 7but emptied Himself, taking the form of a bond-servant, and being made in the likeness of men. 8And being found in appearance as a man, He humbled Himself by becoming obedient to the point of death, even death on a cross.”
As a man, Jesus is under the Law
Gal. 4:4, “But when the fullness of the time came, God sent forth His Son, born of a woman, born under the Law,”
As a man, Jesus was made for a while lower than the angels
Heb. 2:9, “But we do see Him who has been made for a little while lower than the angels…”
We have already seen that Jesus is the incarnate Word (that was God) made flesh (John 1:1,14; Col. 2:9), found in appearance as a man, and that He humbled Himself to the point of death (Phil. 2:8). What we also need to understand is that He was made under the Law (Gal. 4:4) and that He was lower than the angels (Heb. 2:9). This is very important because it will tell us what to expect from Jesus as He walks the earth doing His Father’s will (John 5:30).

Being under the Law means that Jesus was subject to the Law. This is natural because He was a man, a good Jew who would properly be subject to the Torah, the Law. Also, since He is God in flesh, and since as God He authored the Law, He would naturally be subject to it. Let me clarify this.

God spoke the Law. The Law is a reflection of the character of God. It is wrong to lie because God cannot lie. It is wrong to bear false witness because God cannot bear false witness. The Law reflects God’s nature and character. God spoke it to us as a revelation of moral truth. Jesus said that we speak out of the abundance of our hearts (Matt. 12:34). Therefore, Jesus, as God in flesh, would naturally live and reflect that Law which God had given so long ago which God spoke out of the abundance of His own heart.

Under the Law
In order for the Word (John 1:1) to be under the Law (Gal. 4:4), He would have to become a man, born of a woman. To be under the Law would mean that Jesus would have to be circumcised. This can only happen if He was a baby. He would then grow in wisdom and stature (Luke 2:52). It means that He would be subject to His parents per Exodus 20:12. It means that He would have to wait until the appropriate time in His life to enter into the ministry to accomplish the will of the Father who sent Him. None of these things negates His divine nature.

Being under the Law necessitates that He be a man, that He behave as a man, and that being a man means that all the limitations and qualities of being a man are also His — at least to the extent that the Divine allows itself to experience limitation while incarnated. Again, this does not mean that He does not possess a divine nature. It means that as He emptied Himself to become a man (Phil. 2:7) and that He cooperated with the limitations of being a man under the Law. Furthermore, Jesus did all His miracles by the power of the Holy Spirit.

By the Power of the Holy Spirit
Jesus was baptized to enter into the Melchizedek Priesthood. This is very significant because it means that Jesus was anointed with the Holy Spirit and did all His miracles by the Power of the Holy Spirit — because He was a man made completely under the Law. Let me lay this out for you here.

Jesus was baptized because He had to fulfill the legal requirements for entering into the priesthood. He was a priest after the order of Melchizedek (Psalm 110:4; Heb. 5:8-10; 6:20). Priests offered sacrifice to God on behalf of the people. Jesus became a sacrifice for our sin (1 Pet. 2:24; 2 Cor. 5:21) in His role as priest. To be consecrated as a priest, He had to be washed with water (Lev. 8:6; Exodus 29:4, Matt. 3:16); This was fulfilled in the water of baptism when Jesus was baptized. He had to be anointed with oil (Lev. 8:12; Exodus 29:7; Matt. 3:16), This is fulfilled when the Holy Spirit came upon Jesus as a dove. Both of these were bestowed upon Jesus at His baptism. Additionally, He may have needed to be 30 years old – (Num. 4:3).

Now, if we look at Matt. 12:22-32 we see the account of Jesus casting out demons. The Pharisees said He did it by the power of the devil. But, Jesus responds by stating that you could insult the Father and the Son and be forgiven. But, if you insult the Holy Spirit, that would not be forgiven. Why? Because Jesus was doing His miracles by the power of the Holy Spirit because Jesus was completely a man under the Law and functioned as a man just as we would — with the Holy Spirit working through us.

Lower than the Angels
Heb. 2:9 says that Jesus was made for a while lower than the angels. This means that Jesus was in a humbled position. The angels are far greater creatures than humans in power and mental abilities. Jesus was made lower than them. That is, He was made a man. He was not exercising His Lordship over all of creation. This further means that Jesus was operating, walking, talking, living, and acting as a man who was subject to the Law.

What does this mean?
Because Jesus was made lower than the angels, as a man, there are certain ramifications to this humbled and emptied condition.

That Jesus was subject to the Law, (Gal. 4:4).
Jesus was subject to the Father who sent Him, (John 5:30).
Jesus would be circumcised, (Luke 1:59).
Jesus would grow in wisdom and stature, (Luke 2:52).
Jesus would not know all things (Mark 13:32).
etc.
The above facts do not negate the deity of Christ. God could easily become a man, humble Himself, join Himself to human nature and then be subject to the Law, to grow, to learn, etc. This would be a natural result of being a man, wouldn’t it? And, it would not negate the deity of Christ at all. It only demonstrates that the Word made flesh was fully a man. Col. 2:9 says, “For in Him [Jesus] all the fullness of Deity dwells in bodily form.”

Now, let’s look at those verses that exemplify the above stated information and see how we might comment about them.

3. Scriptures dealing with Jesus in His humbled state
Matthew 20:23, “My cup you shall drink; but to sit on My right and on My left, this is not Mine to give, but it is for those for whom it has been prepared by My Father.”
Jesus was sent by the Father to accomplish what the Father had given Jesus to do (John 5:30; 1 John 4:10). Since Jesus is the Word made flesh with all the fullness of deity dwelling in Him, this statement of Jesus in no way negates Jesus’ deity. He was completely a man and as a man, He would naturally be subject to the Father.
Mark 13:32, “But of that day or hour no one knows, not even the angels in heaven, nor the Son, but the Father alone.”
Jesus had emptied Himself and was cooperating with the limitations of being a man. Therefore, He did not know all things. However….
In John 21:17, Peter says that Jesus knows all things and Jesus does not correct him. The point is that before the resurrection of Jesus, it is said of Him that He did not know all things. But, after Jesus’ resurrection, Jesus knew all things — and He was still a man since He was resurrected bodily (John 2:19-21; Luke 24:39).
Luke 2:52, “And Jesus kept increasing in wisdom and stature, and in favor with God and men.”
Jesus was born from His mother Mary. Phil. 2:5-8 says that though he was in the form of God He had emptied Himself and became a man. To be a man, he had to be born. If He is born of a woman, then He would naturally grow up and learn. This is perfectly consistent with what it would mean for the Word (which was God – John 1:1) to become flesh (v. 14) and grow up as a man.
If Jesus has two natures, and if Jesus was cooperating with the limitations of being a man, it would also mean that Jesus’ divine nature was subjected to the human and its limitations.
Luke 18:19, “Why do you call Me good? No one is good except God alone.”
Was Jesus saying that He was not good? Of course not. Jesus says He is good when He says He is the Good Shepherd (John 10:11). Jesus is not denying His deity. If only God is Good and Jesus says that He is the Good Shepherd, then Jesus must be God.
John 5:19, “Truly, truly, I say to you, the Son can do nothing of Himself, unless it is something He sees the Father doing; for whatever the Father does, these things the Son also does in like manner.”
Jesus, as a man, was performing His miracles by the power of the Holy Spirit. This is why He did only what He saw the Father doing. Also, can an angel of a mere man do whatever God the Father does? Hardly! Jesus, God in flesh, can do what God the Father can do.
Not doing anything of Himself simply means He was willingly subject to the Father to do the Father’s will — because He emptied Himself to become a man (Phil. 2:5-8). This was the necessary state of Him being a man, lower than the angels, and under the Law.
Interestingly, can we do anything of ourselves? Of course we can. We can walk and talk freely. So did Jesus. So what did He mean by His statement? Probably that since He came for the purpose of doing’s God’s will, that He could do nothing of His own will.
John 5:20, “For the Father loves the Son, and shows Him all things that He Himself is doing; and greater works than these will He show Him, that you may marvel.”
As a man and naturally being subject to the Father, the Father would show Him all things.
Interesting to note that the Father does not show all things to anyone else. Only the Son? Why? Perhaps because as God in flesh, Jesus could then know and comprehend all things shown to Him.
John 5:22, “For not even the Father judges anyone, but He has given all judgment to the Son,”
Judgment was indeed given to the Son. The reason was because Jesus had humbled Himself by becoming a man and made under the Law. Therefore, the Father would give Him the act of Judging people. This is a natural consequence of being human. It does not mean that Jesus is not divine. It means that Jesus was human.
Also, isn’t God the judge of all men? How could such judgment be given to an angel or a mere man? In order to righteously judge all people, the one judging would have to know all things about that person’s life. Only God has such knowledge. Remember, after the resurrection Peter said that Jesus knew all things, (John 21:17).
John 5:26, “For just as the Father has life in Himself, even so He gave to the Son also to have life in Himself.”
Jesus, as a man under the Law, was moving and acting as a man who was doing the will of the Father (John 5:30). This is proper since Jesus was a man. Therefore, as a man, life would be given to Him from the Father. Jesus is speaking of His humanity, not His divinity.
John 5:27, “and He gave Him authority to execute judgment, because He is the Son of Man.”
Jesus, as a man under the Law, cooperated with the limitations of being a man. As a man, authority would have to be given Him. Remember, Jesus was not moving out of His divine nature, but was moving and walking as a man in order to fulfill the Law completely and properly.
John 5:30, “I can do nothing on My own initiative. As I hear, I judge; and My judgment is just, because I do not seek My own will, but the will of Him who sent Me.”
Because Jesus came to do the will of the Father, He could do nothing of His own initiative because it wasn’t His purpose to do His own will. Instead, He did whatever He saw the Father do (John 5:19). His food was to do the will of the Father (John 4:34). This doesn’t mean that Jesus isn’t God. It means that Jesus was completely a man just as the doctrine of the Hypostatic Union teaches.
John 6:38, “For I have come down from heaven, not to do My own will, but the will of Him who sent Me.”
What about this verse means that Jesus is not divine as well as human? Nothing. The Christian doctrine of the incarnation is that Jesus is both divine and human and that Jesus humbled Himself to become a man. As a man He didn’t come to do His own will. Jesus simply states that He came from heaven to do the will of the Father. This means that Jesus (the Word) was in heaven with the Father before He came a man.
John 8:28, “Jesus therefore said, “When you lift up the Son of Man, then you will know that I am He, and I do nothing on My own initiative, but I speak these things as the Father taught Me.”
Because Jesus came to do the will of the Father, He could do nothing of His own initiative because it wasn’t His purpose to do His own will. Instead, He did whatever He saw the Father do (John 5:19). His food was to do the will of the Father (John 4:34). This doesn’t mean that Jesus isn’t God. It means that Jesus was completely a man just as the doctrine of the Hypostatic Union teaches.
John 14:28, “The Father is greater than I.”
Because Jesus was in a lower position that the Father, He could say that the Father was greater than He. This is not denying Jesus deity any more than saying a wife is in a lesser position than her husband (speaking of authority in the family) means that she is different in nature than her husband.
Jesus was simply speaking of position, not nature. Jesus did say, after all, that He and the Father were one (John 10:30) and after say that, the Jews wanted to kill Him because they said He was claiming to be God.
John 17:3, “And this is eternal life, that they may know You, the only true God, and Jesus Christ whom You have sent.”
As a man, Jesus would naturally and properly have someone He would call his God. In this case, He called the Father the only true God because that is the proper thing for a Jew, in this case Jesus, to say.
If the word “only” here means that Jesus cannot then be God, then that same logic applied to Jude 4 means that God is not our Lord. “…ungodly persons who turn the grace of our God into licentiousness and deny our only Master and Lord, Jesus Christ.” This verse using the word “only” must necessarily mean that God is not our Master and Lord — if we use the same logic used by the critics of Jesus’ deity who cite John 17:3. But, of course, we know that to make a doctrine out of one verse is an improper way to do theology.
Acts 2:36, “Therefore let all the house of Israel know for certain that God has made Him both Lord and Christ”this Jesus whom you crucified.”
Jesus was sent from the Father (1 John 4:10). He was made flesh (John 1:1,14). Therefore, He was made both Lord and Christ by the Father since Jesus position had been humbled, lowered, made under the Law. The incarnation of the Word meant that Jesus was made both Lord and Christ.
Some say that if Jesus is God then He would not have to be made Lord and Christ. But this implies that the terms “lord” and “Christ” both mean God since if He is God He would already be “Lord”. The only way that would be a valid complaint would be if the word “Lord” meant divine. If that was the case then the statement “Jesus is Lord” would mean Jesus is God. Jesus is Lord and Jesus is Christ.
1 Corinthians 11:3, “But I want you to understand that Christ is the head of every man, and the man is the head of a woman, and God is the head of Christ.”
Because Jesus was in a lower position than the Father, due to His incarnation, the God the Father would be His Head. This is a natural proper condition of being made a man under the Law. Incidentally, Jesus is eternally a man, (1 Tim. 2:5; Heb. 7:25).
1 Corinthians 15:28, “And when all things are subjected to Him, then the Son Himself also will be subjected to the One who subjected all things to Him, that God may be all in all.”
Jesus is a man (1 Tim. 2:5). He is eternally a High Priest after the order of Melchizedek so that He can eternally offer intercession for us (Heb. 7:25). As a man He would eternally be subject to the One He calls His Father. This is a result of His humility that resulted in our redemption. This is consistent with the doctrine of the Hypostatic Union which states that within the one person of Christ are two natures: human and divine.
Hebrews 2:10, “For it was fitting for Him, for whom are all things, and through whom are all things, in bringing many sons to glory, to perfect the author of their salvation through sufferings.”
As a man, Jesus was perfected though suffering. As a man, he was made perfect; that is, He was as a completed sacrifice by the finished work of propitiation. Heb. 10:14 says, “For by one offering He has perfected for all time those who are sanctified.”
Hebrews 2:17, “Therefore, He had to be made like His brethren in all things, that He might become a merciful and faithful high priest in things pertaining to God, to make propitiation for the sins of the people.”
This is necessary because Jesus is both human and divine. As a man He was made like His brethren in all things. In no way does this negate the divinity of Christ.
Hebrews 4:15, “For we do not have a high priest who cannot sympathize with our weaknesses, but One who has been tempted in all things as we are, yet without sin.”
Some say that Jesus could not be God because He was tempted and God cannot be tempted. But the truth is that God can be tempted. Psalm 106:13-15 says, “They quickly forgot His works; They did not wait for His counsel, 14But craved intensely in the wilderness, and tempted God in the desert. 15So He gave them their request, but sent a wasting disease among them.” The manner that God was tempted was that someone was presented to Him. In the same way Jesus was tempted. So, as God can be tempted, so can Jesus.
Hebrews 5:9, “And having been made perfect, He became to all those who obey Him the source of eternal salvation.”
As a man, Jesus was perfected though suffering. As a man, he was made perfect; that is, He was as a completed sacrifice by the finished work of propitiation. Heb. 10:14 says, “For by one offering He has perfected for all time those who are sanctified.”
Conclusion
The fact that Jesus moved in a limited context while accomplishing His ministry does not mean that He is not God. It means that He cooperated with the limitations of being a man so that He could do what He had to do. He has two natures: God and man. He emptied Himself to become a man (Phil. 2:7) and He cooperated with the limitations of being a man under the Law. This explains the verses that show His limitless.

Finally, if the cults want to say that the limited aspect of Jesus’ behaviour means that He cannot be divine, then what do they do with the scriptures that teach that He is all knowing and ever-present?

John 21:17, “And he [Peter] said to Him, ‘Lord, You know all things; You know that I love You.’ Jesus *said to him, ‘Tend My sheep.'”
After Jesus’ resurrection, so Jesus was in His glorified body, Peter states that Jesus knew all things…and Jesus did not correct him.
Matt. 28:20, “…I am with you always, even to the end of the age.”
Jesus spoke this to His disciples, and therefore to all Christians. He stated that He would be with them always. This is only possible if He is omnipresent.
If Jesus is not God because He learned, then He must be God if He knew all things. If Jesus is not God because He was a man, then He must be God since He will be with all disciples everywhere.

Jesus baptism

Jesus baptism

Why did Jesus insist on being baptized by John the Baptist?

The fullest description of the baptism of Jesus is given in Matthew 3. So let’s let Matthew guide us in answering the question: Why did Jesus insist on being baptized by John? There are at least two things that Matthew makes plain about John’s baptism which are relevant for why Jesus would insist on submitting to this baptism.

First, Matthew 3:6 says that people were coming to be baptized confessing their sins. And then he quotes John in Matthew 3:11: “I baptize you with water for repentance.” So Matthew was making plain that the purpose of John’s baptism was to provide an occasion for Jewish people to confess their sins and repent and get right with God. That is the first thing.

Second, John makes clear that his baptism of repentance is bringing into being a people of God for the coming Messiah and that he is bringing this people into being with an identity that is not identical with their Jewishness, but with their repentance. We see it in Matthew 3:9. He says to the Pharisees who had come out to the river, “And do not presume to say to yourselves, ‘We have Abraham as our father,’ for I tell you, God is able from these stones to raise up children for Abraham.” What does that mean? It means there is no salvation and no security in claiming your lineage from Abraham.

God is free in choosing who will be in his people. He can make saints of his own, out of rocks if he wanted to. So the new people of God that are being gathered by this baptism being prepared for the coming Messiah, Jesus, are marked by repentance and the fruit that comes from repentance, and they are not, like the Pharisees, depending on their ethnicity or their religious pedigree by saying: We have Abraham as our father.

Now, Jesus comes into that situation and John says to him: Whoa. “I need to be baptized by you, and do you come to me [to be baptized]?” (Matthew 3:14). In other words: He makes crystal clear that Jesus does not need this baptism. He does not need to repent. He does not need to confess any sins. So why are you here?

Jesus gives one sentence in answer, and it is massively important. He says, “Let it be so now, for thus it is fitting for us to fulfill all righteousness” (Matthew 3:15). It is fitting. That is why he is doing it. It is fitting. Well, what is fitting? Fulfilling all righteousness is fitting. Evidently Jesus saw his life as the fulfillment of all righteousness. And the fact that participating in a baptism of repentance even though he had no sins to repent of is part of that shows that the righteousness he wanted to fulfill was the righteousness required not of himself, but of every sinful man.

Jesus had read Isaiah 53. Indeed, Isaiah 53 was his life mission. And here is what he read in verse 11: “By his knowledge shall the righteous one, my servant, make many to be accounted righteous.” The righteous one will cause many to be counted righteous.

So my answer to the question of why Jesus insisted on being baptized is that this new people who were being gathered by John the Baptist on the basis of repentance and faith, not on the basis of Jewishness, would need to be justified. They would need to be counted righteous, because they weren’t righteous. They would need to have a righteousness not their own, as Paul said in Philippians 3:89. And that righteousness included the fulfillment of all righteousness in life, the life of Jesus. All the righteousness that would be required of men before the court of God Jesus performed. And so he joined fallen humanity, for whom he was providing righteousness in sharing their baptism.

Jesus is God - He is Worshipped

Jesus is God – He is Worshipped

Jesus accepted worship prior to His ascension
Matthew 28:16-17 “Then the eleven disciples went to Galilee, to the mountain where Jesus had told them to go. When they saw him, they worshiped him; but some doubted.”

Note that Jesus was worshiped at His birth, throughout His ministry, after His resurrection, and again here — right before His physical ascension into heaven. His divine nature, as a member of the Godhead (along with the Father and the Holy Spirit), was never questioned by Him or by those who really knew who He was and followed Him.

Paul’s understanding as an apostle and leader of the church
Colossians 1:15-16; 2:9 “He is the image of the invisible God, the firstborn over all creation. For by him all things were created: things in heaven and on earth, visible and invisible, whether thrones or powers or rulers or authorities; all things were created by him and for him. . . . For in Christ all the fullness of the Deity lives in bodily form. . .”

And in Titus 2:13-14 Paul refers to him as “our great God and Savior, Jesus Christ, who gave himself for us to redeem us. . .”

Paul’s letters were some of the earliest Christian writings, with most of them actually pre-dating the four Gospels — yet they make some of the strongest statements concerning the first church’s clear understanding of Jesus as the Creator; God in human form.

Jesus will be worshiped by every creature in heaven Revelation 5:13-14 “Then I heard every creature in heaven and on earth and under the earth and on the sea, and all that is in them, singing: ‘To him who sits on the throne and to the Lamb be praise and honor and glory and power, for ever and ever!’ The four living creatures said, ‘Amen,’ and the elders fell down and worshiped.”

The last book in the Bible points prophetically to the time where every living creature will know and acknowledge that Jesus, the “Lamb of God, who takes away the sin of the world” (John 1:29) is also the God who we must praise, honor, and worship — and certainly was not a mere mortal whose identity needed upgrading by Constantine (Roman emperor) hundreds of years after He walked this planet!

Jesus is God Why this matters so much
But Jesus and His followers made the truth very clear, as we’ve seen in the pages of the earliest records, concerning who He was and is — and how imperative it is that we understand and embrace that truth. Look at His sobering words about the vital importance of His identity.

“I am the light of the world. Whoever follows me will never walk in darkness, but will have the light of life. . . .

“But you have no idea where I come from or where I am going. . .You do not know me or my Father. . .I told you that you would die in your sins; if you do not believe that I am the one I claim to be, you will indeed die in your sins.”

“. . .Even as He spoke, many put their faith in him. To [them] Jesus said, ‘If you hold to my teaching, you are really my disciples. Then you will know the truth, and the truth will set you free.'”
– Jesus, recorded in John chapter 8

Jesus is God

Jesus is God

“The Jews answered Him (Jesus), ‘For a good work we do not stone You, but for blasphemy; and because You, being a man, make yourself out to be God.’ ” (John 10:33)

Jesus had obviously claimed to be God. So just what had He said to upset His Jewish audience so much?

“I and the Father are one.” (John 10:30)

He didn’t say that He was simply like the Father. He said that they were “one.” In verse 36, Jesus makes it clear that He had referred to Himself as the “Son of God.” Logic alone would tell us that the “Son” of God would possess the same deity as the Father. Man begets man. God begets God. The Jews, however, didn’t believe any of His claims. Getting nowhere with them, Jesus then focused their attention on the works that He had done and would continue to do. If He wasn’t God, He reasoned, how could He have performed all those miracles? He supported His claim to be God by saying,

“…that you may know and understand that the Father is in Me, and I in the Father.” (John 10:38)

During the Last Supper, just after washing the disciples’ feet, Jesus made a bold statement:

“You call Me Teacher and Lord; and you are right, for so I am.” (John 13:13)

The New Testament was originally written in Greek. The Greek word for “Lord” is Kurios, meaning “Godsupreme in authority. Jesus was making the point that they were to follow the example (serving one another) set by God Himself. Later that evening, He reiterated His claim by saying to Philip,

“…He who has seen Me has seen the Father.” (John 14:9)

Perhaps the most direct and profound example of Jesus claiming to be God is found at the end of the eighth chapter of John.

Jesus said to them, “Truly, truly, I say to you, before Abraham was born, I am.” (John 8:58)

This may seem like a confusing answer, but the Jews knew exactly what He was claiming. By using the term “I am,” He was making Himself out to be Yahweh (God) of the Old Testament. We know that the Jews understood His claim, since verse 59 tells us that they wanted to stone Him. He was claiming to have existed not only before Abraham, but eternally. We find the name “I AM” first used when God called Moses to lead the Israelites out of bondage in Egypt. Not being crazy about the whole idea, Moses started making excuses. If he told the “sons of Israel” that the God of their fathers had sent him to them, what should he say if they asked, “What is His name?”

And God said to Moses, “I AM WHO I AM”; and He said, “Thus you shall say to the sons of Israel, ‘I AM has sent me to you.’ “

Here, God, in giving this name, gives the essential meaning of YahwehI am the One who is. By referring to Himself with the same name, Jesus is unmistakably claiming to be God. Anyone who argues that Jesus never made such a claim simply hasn’t bothered to search the Scriptures for themselves