It might seem strange that the word “Bible” is not in the Bible but the inference of the Bible is there when the words “Scripture,” “The Word of the Lord” or “Thus says the Lord” occur and that is over one thousand times. By this enormous amount of references to Scripture as the Word of God, we know that all Scripture is God-breathed (2 Tim3:16) and its source is from the Spirit of God (2 Pet 1:21). The English word “Bible” is from the Greek word “Byblos” and the Latin “biblia” and both mean “books.” These “books” are a collection of writings constituting the sacred text of Scripture. These books are collectively referred to as the Bible and include the Book of Genesis all the way to the Book of Revelation. These books of the Bible are what God calls “the Word of God” or “Scripture” and include “Thus says the Lord.”
All posts by David Stevenson
Greek
Aramaic was the primary language of the land, Greek was the language of business, education, and for communication with foreigners (because it was a wide-spread language), and Hebrew was the religious language of the Jews and was primarily reserved for prayers, religious teaching, and communication with other Jews.
The primary reason would be portability. Greek was a very wide-spread language. Hebrew and Aramaic were not.
Greek was the language that made sense. It was wide-spread, it was for the foreigner, and the Jew knew it as well. Greek was the language that would affect the most people.
ReSponse to Muslims-Crucifixion
For very weird reasons you didn’t post Leviticus 17:11 which is a clear statute of God that commands shedding of blood and this is specifically for atonement for the soul.
This very same verse is echoed in Hebrews 9:22
This was the major statute of God.
Deuteronomy 24:16 does NOT apply here for the following reasons:
This is a communal law that governed the way people lived in Israel.
You clearly missed the plural words “fathers”, “sons”, ” children “.
No one is being asked to die for anyone except the Lord Jesus Christ who right from the beginning was foretold that He would die for the sins of mankind.
The Lord Jesus Christ is Almighty God who came in the form of a human being….so this doesn’t apply one bit.
John 1:1
John 1:14
The Lord Jesus Christ is the only person who was sent to die for humanity. As the Messiah that was His sole mission.
Zechariah 12:10
John 19:34-37
So there are no fathers being put to death for their children and vice versa.
Furthermore, it is quite interesting that you will quote the Apostle Paul who preached that the Lord Jesus Christ was crucified, died and resurrected.
1 Corinthians 1:23
Galatians 2:20
Hebrews 5:7 says God heard Him, but you need to continue reading to Hebrews 6:6, then read Hebrews 9 & 10 which clearly shows that the Lord Jesus Christ was crucified and died.
So Hebrews 5:7 is just saying that God heard His supplications but not to stop Him from being crucified and dying, but to make Him the author of eternal salvation to all who obey Him
Hebrews 5:9
There is nothing imperfect about the Holy Bible….. The only imperfection is from you and your warped way of reasoning.
Lastly it is another proof of the sheer hypocrisy of islam to criticise the same Holy Bible it claims to have prophecies about Muhammad.
If the Holy Bible is ” imperfect ” like you claim, then why do you muslims love to quote the same Holy Bible to prove the authenticity of Muhammad and the Quran? That makes you abduls the worst kind of hypocrites don’t you think?
God will destroy islamic countries in end of days
1) Syria-Damascus (Isaiah 7:8, Isaiah 17:1,14)
2) Edom (Jeremiah 49:7-8)
3) Palestine (Joel 3:1-4)
4) Libya (Ezekiel 30:5)
5) Lebanon (Joel 3:4-8,Ezekil 28:20-26
6) Egypt (Isaiah 19:1-22)
7) Iran (Daniel 2:34-35, Ezekiel 38:1-8,Revelation 13:2)
8. Turkey ( Ezekiel 32:26-28, 39:6)
9) Ethiopia (Zephaniah 2:11-12)
10) Saudi Arabia (Jeremiah 25:15-17,23-24,30-31,33)
God rested
God did not merely “rest” on the seventh day; He “stopped creating.” It was a purposeful stop. Everything He desired to create had been made. He looked at His creation, declared it “very good” (Genesis 1:31), and ceased from His activity.
The Hebrew word translated “rested” in Genesis 2:2 means “to cease or stop.” In Genesis 2:2 the understanding is that God “stopped” His work; He “ceased” creating on the seventh day. All that He had created was good, and His work was finished.
With your logic when a lawyer says the defence rests it must mean the defence is tired. Do a bit of research into what a word means before posting so you do not embarrass yourself in future.
God was greater than Jesus while Jesus was on Earth
God was greater than Jesus when Jesus was on earth as a man
There is only one God
Jesus could nothing on his own as man
Jesus was a servant while he was man, he is no longer a servat
Jesus is all powerful he is the judge of mankind
Jesus is equal to God
Jesus is the Son of God
When we say that Jesus is God we are saying that he is divine by nature. He is, after all, the second person of the Trinity. But when we say that Jesus is the Son of God, we are saying that he is also God since that is what the phrase means.
God does exist as 3 person in one
Christianity teaches that God is a Trinity; that is, God is Father, Son, and Holy Spirit. To say that Jesus Christ is God is almost like saying that he is the Trinity, and that would make no sense. When the Christian says that Jesus is God, he really means that Jesus is divine in nature. Since God is three persons and since Jesus is the second person in the Trinity, he shares the same divinity with the Father and Holy Spirit.
Jesus said the Father was greater than He not because Jesus is not God but because Jesus was also a man; and as a man, he was in a lower position. He was “. . . made for a little while lower than the angels . . .” (Heb. 2:9). Also in Phil. 2:5-8, it says that Jesus “emptied Himself, taking the form of a bond-servant, and being made in the likeness of men . . .”
Jesus has two natures: divine and human. Jesus was not denying that He was God. He was merely acknowledging the fact that He was also a man. Jesus is both God and man. As a man, he was in a lesser position than the Father because he had added to Himself human nature (Col. 2:9) and was made under the Law (Gal. 4:4). He became a man to die for people (1 Cor. 15:1-4).
A comparison of difference of position can be found in the marriage relationship. Biblically, a husband is greater in position and authority than his wife. He is her head (Eph. 5:23); but, he is no different in nature, and he is not better than she. They share the same nature, being human; and they work together by love and commitment to the Lord.
So, Jesus was not denying that He was God. He was simply acknowledging that He was also a man; and as a man, he was subject to the laws of God so that He might redeem those who were under the law, namely, sinners (Gal. 4:4-5).
SCRIPTURES QUOTED:
Phil. 2:5-8, “Have this attitude in yourselves which was also in Christ Jesus, 6who, although He existed in the form of God, did not regard equality with God a thing to be taken advantage of, 7but emptied Himself, taking the form of a bond-servant, and being made in the likeness of men. 8And being found in appearance as a man, He humbled Himself by becoming obedient to the point of death, even death on a cross.”
Col. 2:9, “For in Him all the fullness of Deity dwells in bodily form.”
Gal. 4:4-5, “But when the fullness of the time came, God sent forth His Son, born of a woman, born under the Law, 5in order that He might redeem those who were under the Law, that we might receive the adoption as sons.”
Heb. 2:9, “But we do see Him who has been made for a little while lower than the angels, namely, Jesus, because of the suffering of death crowned with glory and honor, that by the grace of God He might taste death for everyone.”
God was greater than Jesus
Jesus said the Father was greater than Him. But, it was not because Jesus is not God. Instead, it was because Jesus was in a lower position than God the Father. He was “…made for a little while lower than the angels…” (Heb. 2:9). In Gal. 4:4, it says He was made under the Law. So, as someone under the Law, he had to pray to the Father and do the Father’s will. Also, in Phil. 2:5-8, it says that Jesus “emptied Himself, taking the form of a bond-servant, and being made in the likeness of men…”
“You heard that I said to you, ‘I go away, and I will come to you.’ If you loved Me, you would have rejoiced, because I go to the Father; for the Father is greater than I,” (John 14:28).
Jesus has two natures: divine and human. Jesus was not denying that He was God. He was merely acknowledging the fact that He was also a man. Jesus is both God and man. As a man, he was in a lesser position than the Father because he had added to Himself human nature (Col. 2:9) and was made under the Law (Gal. 4:4). He became a man to die for people (1 Cor. 15:1-4).
A comparison of differences of position can be found in the marriage relationship. Biblically, a husband is greater in position and authority than his wife. He is her head (Eph. 5:23); but, he is no different in nature, and he is not better than she. They share the same nature, being human, and they work together by love and commitment to the Lord.
So, Jesus did not deny that He was God. He was acknowledging that He was also a man, and as a man, he was subject to the laws of God so that He might redeem those who were under the law, namely, sinners (Gal. 4:4-5).
Scriptures quoted:
Phil. 2:5-8, “Have this attitude in yourselves which was also in Christ Jesus, 6 who, although He existed in the form of God, did not regard equality with God a thing to be grasped, 7 but emptied Himself, taking the form of a bond-servant, and being made in the likeness of men. 8 And being found in appearance as a man, He humbled Himself by becoming obedient to the point of death, even death on a cross.”
Col. 2:9, “For in Him all the fullness of Deity dwells in bodily form.”
Gal. 4:4-5, “But when the fullness of the time came, God sent forth His Son, born of a woman, born under the Law, 5 in order that He might redeem those who were under the Law, that we might receive the adoption as sons.”
Heb. 2:9, “But we do see Him who has been made for a little while lower than the angels, namely, Jesus, because of the suffering of death crowned with glory and honor, that by the grace of God He might taste death for everyone.”
God IS greater than Jesus
The phrase “the Father is greater than I” (John 14:28) was spoken by Jesus during the upper room discourse, and the greater context is the promising of the Holy Spirit to the disciples after Jesus’ resurrection. Jesus says repeatedly that He is doing the Father’s will, thereby implying that He is somehow subservient to the Father. The question then becomes how can Jesus be equal to God when by His own admission He is subservient to the will of God? The answer to this question lies within the nature of the incarnation.
During the incarnation, Jesus was temporarily “made lower than the angels” (Hebrews 2:9), which refers to Jesus’ status. The doctrine of the incarnation says that the second Person of the Trinity took on human flesh. Therefore, for all intents and purposes, Jesus was fully human and “made lower than the angels.” However, Jesus is fully divine, too. By taking on human nature, Jesus did not relinquish His divine natureGod cannot stop being God. How do we reconcile the fact that the second Person of the Trinity is fully divine yet fully human and by definition “lower than the angels”? The answer to that question can be found in Philippians 2:5-11. When the second Person of the Trinity took on human form, something amazing occurred. Christ “made himself nothing.” This phrase has generated more ink than almost any other phrase in the Bible. In essence, what it means is that Jesus voluntarily relinquished the prerogative of freely exercising His divine attributes and subjected Himself to the will of the Father while on earth.
Another thing to consider is the fact that subservience in role does not equate to subservience in essence. For example, consider an employer/employee relationship. The employer has the right to make demands of the employee, and the employee has the obligation to serve the employer. The roles clearly define a subservient relationship. However, both people are still human beings and share in the same human nature. There is no difference between the two as to their essence; they stand as equals. The fact that one is an employer and the other is an employee does nothing to alter the essential equality of these two individuals as human beings. The same can be said of the members of the Trinity. All three members (Father, Son and Holy Spirit) are essentially equal; i.e., they are all divine in nature. However, in the grand plan of redemption, they play certain roles, and these roles define authority and subservience. The Father commands the Son, and the Father and the Son command the Holy Spirit.
Therefore, the fact that the Son took on a human nature and made Himself subservient to the Father in no way denies the deity of the Son, nor does it diminish His essential equality with the Father. The “greatness” spoken of in this verse, then, relates to role, not to essence.
God CreAted Light before the Sun
The grammar of the verse does not support such a reading. The main verse in question is Genesis 1:16, which is:
וַיַּ֣עַשׂ אֱלֹהִ֔ים אֶת־שְׁנֵ֥י הַמְּאֹרֹ֖ת הַגְּדֹלִ֑ים אֶת־הַמָּא֤וֹר הַגָּדֹל֙ לְמֶמְשֶׁ֣לֶת הַיּ֔וֹם וְאֶת־הַמָּא֤וֹר הַקָּטֹן֙ לְמֶמְשֶׁ֣לֶת הַלַּ֔יְלָה וְאֵ֖ת הַכּוֹכָבִֽים
The first grammatical problem is that the word מאור (ma’or) which appears three time in the verse is not the same as the word אור (or), meaning “light” as in Genesis 1:3. The word מאור in Genesis 1:16 has a mem (מ) prefix, meaning something that gives light, a source of illumination rather than light itself. This distinction is critical to correct understanding of the verse but is not apparent in any of the main English translations because in English there is no distinction between “light” meaning light itself and “a light” meaning a lamp or source of illumination. Only Young’s Literal Translation comes close to providing this distinction:
And God maketh the two great luminaries, the great luminary for the rule of the day, and the small luminary — and the stars — for the rule of the night.
The second grammatical problem is the form of the verse, which is
God made two: this one and that one
This is a common form in the OT, for example, Exodus 29:38-39 (KJV):
Now this is that which thou shalt offer upon the altar; two lambs of the first year day by day continually. The one lamb thou shalt offer in the morning; and the other lamb thou shalt offer at even:
No one would suggest that this form indicates that the two lambs (or two sources of light) could be identical
Luke 9:22 Destroys Islam Argument
Thats rubbish Paul was appointed by God to spread the gospel. There is no evidence in the Bible that Paul was ruled by Satan.
The one verse that compledly destroys your argument and destroys Islam is
Luke 9:22
“The Son of Man must suffer many things and be rejected by the elders and chief priests and scribes, and be killed, and on the third day be raised.”
There are no errors in John gospel, In fact John’s gospel does not disagree with Lukes at all.
Jesus said he is God, he was also worshipped when he was on earth.
There is no salvation in Islam, the only way is through Jesus