Author : Sam Shamoun

The Nature Of Christ

Muslim Argument:
There is no clear biblical reference from the lips of Jesus claiming to be God. In fact, nowhere in the Bible does Jesus teach anyone to worship him. Instead he commands that one should worship God (Cf. Mat. 4:10).

Christian Response:
There is a very good reason why Jesus did not just come out right away and proclaim that he was God. Noted New Testament Scholar and Catholic Theologian, Raymond E. Brown states it best:

“The question concerns Jesus a Galilean Jew of the first third of the first century, for whom `God’ would have a meaning specified by his background and the theological language of the time. By way of simplification (and perhaps oversimplification) let me say that I think by a Jew of that period `God’ would have been thought of as One dwelling in the heavens- among many attributes. Therefore, a question posed to Jesus on earth, `Do you think you are God? would mean did he think he was the One dwelling in heaven. And you can see that would have been an inappropriate question, since Jesus was visibly on earth. As a matter of fact the question was never asked of him; at most he was asked about his relationship to God.” (Brown, Responses to 101 Questions on the Bible [Mahwah, N.J.; Paulist Press, 1990], p.98)

Therefore, for Jesus to say that he was God without qualification would have meant that Jesus was claiming to be the same person commonly referred to by both Jews and Christians as the Father. Yet, Jesus was not the same person as the Father, but was distinct from him, sharing the same essence and nature equally. Brown notes:

“… I would say that by that time (i.e. the last decade of the first century), under the impact of their quest to understand Jesus, Christians had in a certain sense expanded the meaning of the word `God.’ It no longer for them simply covered the Father in heaven; it covered the Son on earth. They had come to realize that Jesus was so intimately related to God, so filled with God’s presence, that the term God was applicable to him as it was to the Father in heaven. May I emphasis that this does not involve a change in Jesus; it involves a change and growth in the Christian perception of who he was.” (Op. Cit.)

That Brown does not mean to say that it was Jesus’ followers, and not Jesus himself, who came to realize that he was God, is clear from his following statement:

“Did Jesus have an identity which his followers later came to understand in terms of his being God? If he was God (and most Christians do agree on that), did he know who he was? I think the simplest answer to that question is yes.” (Ibid., p. 99)

Hence, once Jesus had clearly affirmed the distinction between the Father and himself the term “God” came to be understood as a reference not just to a specific person, but to all the Persons of the Godhead. Once this qualification had been made clear, Jesus went on to make divine claims. Some claims include the following:

1. Jesus claims to be the Lord of the Sabbath, which to the Jews would have been a claim of being Yahweh God. (Cf. Mat. 12:8; Leviticus 23:3)
2. Jesus clearly refers to himself as God to the Gadarene demoniac (Cf. Luke 8:38-39)
3. Jesus claims to be Almighty in Revelation 1:7-8.
4. Jesus applies titles of God to himself, such as
   a. First and the Last. (Cf. Isa. 48:12; Rev. 1:17-18, 22:12-13, 20)
   b. I AM. (Cf. Isa. 48:12; John 8:58, 18:4-6)
5. Jesus forgives sins and heals, something which Yahweh does. (Cf. Mark 2:1-12; Psalm 103:3)
6. Jesus is the Source of Life and the Resurrection. (Cf. John 5:25, 28-29; 10:27; 11:25-26)
7. Jesus is to receive the same exact honor that the Father receives, which includes praying to him. In fact, to praise Jesus is to praise Yahweh. (Cf. Mat. 21:14-18-cf.- Ps. 8:2; John 5:22-23, 14:13-14)
8. Jesus is Omnipresent. (Cf. Mat. 18:20, 28:20; John 1:44-49; 14:21, 23; Ephesians 1:23, 4:10)
9. Jesus is Omniscient. (Cf. Mat. 11:27; John 16:30, 21:17; Rev. 2:23b- Jer. 17:10)
10. Jesus will judge all nations. (Cf. Mat. 25:31-33- Ezekiel 34:17; Rev.22:12- Isa. 40:10)

This list conclusively proves that Jesus both knew and claimed that he was God.

(Note: Muslims will often point to the fact that there is no place in the New Testament where Jesus says “I am God,” or “worship me.” When this point is brought out, indicate to the Muslim that by the same token nowhere in the New Testament does Jesus ever say “I am not God,” or “do not worship me”. Nor was Jesus ever commanded to say, much like Muhammad in the Quran, that he was only a human messenger [cf. S. 3:144; 17:93; 18:110]. Furthermore, neither does the Father in the New Testament ever say, “I am God,” and/or “worship me.” Using this logic we would be forced to conclude that the Father is not God as well. Point out to the Muslim that s/he is simply arguing from silence which is nothing more than a logical fallacy since absence of evidence is not evidence of absence, i.e. just because the NT doesn’t record Jesus saying that he is God in those exact words doesn’t mean that he never did say it.)

Muslim Argument:
According to the Bible, Jesus cannot be the Messiah since Matthew’s genealogy lists him as a descendant of cursed Jehoaichin.(Mat. 1:11-16) In Jeremiah 22:24-30, God says of Jehoiachin: “‘As surely as I live,’ declares the LORD, `even if you, Jehoiachin, son of Jehoiakim king of Judah, were a signet ring on my right hand, I would still pull you off. I will hand you over to those who seek your life, those you fear- to Nebuchadnezzar king of Babylon and to the Babylonians. I will hurl you and the mother who gave you birth into another country, where neither of you was born, and there you both will die. You will never come back to the land you long to return to,’

“Is this man Jehoiachin a despised, broken pot, an object no one wants? Why will he and his children be hurled out, cast into a land they do not know? O land, land, land, hear the word of the LORD! This is what the LORD says: `Record this man as childless, a man who will not prosper in his lifetime, for none of his offspring will prosper, none will sit on the throne of David or rule anymore in Judah.'”

If Matthew’s genealogy is correct, then Jesus cannot be a legitimate King of Israel nor the Messiah of God.

Christian Response:
It must be stated that the scriptures clearly teach that God’s decree of judgement is not always final since God often allows time for repentance to occur since his desire is for none to perish:

“Say to them, `As surely as I live declares the Sovereign LORD, I take no pleasure in the death of the wicked, but rather that they turn from their ways and live. Turn! Turn from your evil ways! Why will you die, O house of Israel?'” Ezekiel 33:11

In relation to God reversing a decision he has made due to man’s actions we read in Jeremiah 18:7-10:

“If at any time I announce that a nation or kingdom is to be uprooted, torn down and destroyed, and if that nation I warn repents of its evil, then I will relent and not inflict on it the disaster I had planned. And if at another time I announce that a nation and kingdom is to be built up and planted, and if it does evil in my sight and does not obey me, then I will reconsider the good I had intended to for it.” N.I.V.

An example of God reversing his decision due to a nation or individual’s action after hearing the prophetic warning is Ninevah. According to Jonah 3:4 God had declared that the city would be destroyed forty days after the prophet’s warning. But according to Jonah 3:10 we are told that after “God saw what they (the Assyrians) did and how they turned from their evil ways, he had compassion and did not bring upon them the destruction he had threatened.”

Evidently, we find this to be the case with Jehoiachin who obviously had repented since we find certain aspects of the curse reversed. For instance, one stipulation of the curse was that neither he nor his offspring would prosper and yet we find him prospering at the hands of Evil-Merodach king of Babylon:

“In the thirty-seventh year of the exile of Jehoiachin king of Judah, in the year Evil-Merodach became king of Babylon, he released Jehoiachin king of Judah from prison on the twenty-fifth day of the twelfth month. He spoke kindly to him and gave him a seat of honor higher than those of the other kings who were with him in Babylon. So Jehoiachin put aside his prison clothes and for the rest of his life ate regularly at the king’s table. Day by day the king gave Jehoiachin a regular allowance as long as he lived, till the day of his death.” Jeremiah 52:31-34

Furthermore, we find his descendant Zerubbabel prospering in the hands of God, being commissioned by the Lord to rebuild his house:

“‘On that day,’ declares the LORD Almighty, `I will take you, my servant Zerubbabel son of Shealtiel,’ declares the LORD, `and I will make you like my signet ring, for I have chosen you,’ declares the LORD Almighty.'” Haggai 2:23 N.I.V.

These factors strongly support the fact that Jehoiachin had repented which moved God reversed the curse upon him. This is not simply a Christian view but one endorsed by orthodox rabbinic Judaism as well. Sanhedrin 37b-38a states:

“R. Johanen said: Exile atones for everything, for it is written, `Thus saith the Lord, write ye this man childless, a man that shall not prosper in his days, for no man of his seed shall prosper sitting upon the throne of David and ruling, anymore in Judah.’ Whereas after he[the king] was exiled, it is written, `And the sons of Jeconiah,’- `the same is Asir, Shealtiel his son etc.’ (1) [He was called] Asir, because his mother conceived him in prison. Shealtiel, because God did not plant him in the way that others are planted. We know by tradition that a woman cannot conceive in a standing position, [yet she] did conceive standing. Another interpretation: Shealtiel, because God ordained [of the heavenly court] absolution from his oath.(2)“

The Soncino Talmud’s footnotes state:

(1) I Chr. III, 17 notwithstanding the curse that he should be childless, and not prosper, after being exiled he was forgiven.

(2) Which he had made (ed.-the oath), to punish Jeconiah with childlessness.

According to Pesikta de-Rab Kahana, God states “I accepted the repentance of Jeconiah: Shall I not accept your repentance?…”

Finally, the Jewish Encyclopedia records:

“Jehoiachin’s sad experiences changed his nature entirely, as he repented of the sins which he had committed as king he was pardoned by God, who revoked the decree to the effect that none of his descendants should ever become king… he even became the ancestor of the Messiah (Tan, Toledot, 20 [ed. Buber, I. 140] emphasis ours)

Muslim Argument:
Jesus cannot be God since he made false predictions. In Matthew 10:23 Jesus says to his disciples, “I tell you the truth, you will not finish going through the cities of Israel before the Son of Man comes.” The disciples went through the cities of Israel and Jesus still has not returned.

The second false prediction is found in Matthew 16:28 where Jesus states, “I tell you the truth some who are standing here will not taste death before they see the Son of Man coming in his kingdom.” The disciples have all died and Jesus has not come into his kingdom.

Finally, Jesus states in Matthew 24:34 his generation would not pass away until the fulfillment of all the prophecies leading to his second coming had occurred.

Christian Response:
There are no false predictions, but a misunderstanding of Jesus’ words. Firstly, Jesus’ saying “before the Son of Man comes” is not a reference to his second coming, but to his being reunited with his disciples after their evangelistic outreach. This becomes evident from Matthew 11:1 where it states that “after Jesus had finished instructing his twelve disciples, he went on from there to teach and preach in the towns of Galilee.”

Hence, Jesus had departed into Galilee while the disciples were traveling throughout the towns of Israel. Afterwards, Jesus met up with the disciples where “they reported to him all they had done and taught.” (Mark 6:30)

In regard to Matthew 16:28, Jesus was referring to the visible manifestation of his kingdom, where he would appear in glory and power. Jesus was promising his disciples that some of them would get a foretaste of how Jesus would appear at his return, where his second coming is to be accompanied by the proclamation of the two witnesses which scripture indicates must come before Christ. (Cf. Malachi 4:5; Rev. 11:1-12) This understanding becomes evident from Mark’s account:

“And he said to them, `I tell you the truth, some who are standing here will not taste death before they see the kingdom of God come with power.’ ” Mark 9:1

The fulfillment of this promise took place shortly afterwards:

“After six days Jesus took with him Peter, James, and John the brother of James, and led them up a high mountain by themselves. There he was transfigured before them. His face shone like the sun, and his clothes became as white light. Just then there appeared before them Moses and Elijah talking with Jesus.” Matthew 17:1-3

Hence, Jesus did appear in kingly power and glory alongside the two witnesses, fulfilling his promise to the disciples.

In relation to Matthew 24:34, there are two possible responses. First, the term “generation” is the Greek geneous, a synonym of genes which means race. Hence, the race of Jews whom Jesus was addressing would not pass away until the culmination of the age. Secondly, Jesus may not have been referring to his generation per se, but the generation that would witness the signs that Christ predicted would occur before his second coming. (Cf. Mat. 24:15-33)

Muslim Argument:
According to Mark Jesus cursed a fig tree for not having figs on it, even though “it was not the season for figs” (Mark 11:12-14). If Jesus is God, did he not know that it wasn’t season for figs, and if so why would he curse it?

Christian Response:
There are three responses. Firstly, Jesus in his divine consciousness knows all things (Cf. John 21:17), and because of this fact he would have known beforehand whether the tree would bare figs or not. Secondly, before fig season something called taqsh sprouts on the tree as an indication of whether it would bear figs or not. Most likely, Jesus saw that there were no taqsh on the tree which would have indicated to him that it was barren.

Finally, Jesus might have been trying to teach a spiritual lesson. Figs are used in the Old Testament as a symbol for Israel:

“I found Israel like grapes in the wilderness; I saw your fathers as the firstfruits on the fig tree in its first season.” Hosea 9:10 N.K.J.V.

Therefore, Christ could have been indicating to his disciples that Israel would suffer judgment before the culmination of the age. The following parable solidifies this point.

“Then he told this parable: `A man had a fig tree planted in his vineyard; and he came looking for fruit on it and found none. So he said to the gardener, “See here! For three years I have come looking for fruit on this fig and I still find none, Cut it down! Why should it be wasting soil?” He replied, “Sir, let it alone for one more year, until I dig around it and put manure on it. If it bears fruit next year, well and good; but if not, you can cut it down.” ` ” Luke 13:6-9 N.R.S.V.

For over three years Jesus ministered to Israel in order that they might come into repentance, but they were unwilling. Hence, God brought judgement upon the nation for their rejection of the Messiah. This judgement was manifested in the destruction of the Temple in Jerusalem. (Cf. Mat. 23:37; Luke 19:41-44)

Muslim Argument:
Jesus uses what seems to be derogatory language. In Matthew 7:6 Jesus calls unbelievers dogs and swine, and in Matthew 15:26 Jesus likens both the Canaanite woman and Gentiles to dogs.

Christian Response:
Jesus was using common Jewish metaphors to illustrate an unbeliever’s or pagan’s total depravity. (Cf. Proverbs 26:1; 2 Peter 2:22; Rev. 22:14) The crowds would have understood that Jesus was obviously using metaphorical language, and was not literally calling someone a dog or swine.

In regard to Jesus’ statement in Matthew 15:26, Christ was trying to illustrate a key point to his disciples. According to first century Jewish thought both Gentiles and women were held in low esteem. Jews regarded themselves as the children of God, whereas Gentiles were nothing more than house pets.

(Note: The Greek word used in this verse for dogs is kynarion, which properly translated means house pet or puppy [Strong’s 2952]. Jesus’ use of this term implies that just as a house pet has a place in the home of his master, so too do the Gentiles have a place prepared for them in God’s kingdom)

Christ was trying to move his Jewish disciples, who had tried earlier to get rid of the Canaanite woman, to envy by the woman’s persistence and display of great faith; a faith exemplified by someone who to them was nothing more than a house pet. In similar fashion, Jesus had used a Roman Centurion’s faith in contrast to the Israelites’ lack of faith:

“Now when Jesus heard this, he marveled, and said to those who were following, `Truly I say to you, I have not found such great faith with anyone in Israel. And I say to you, that many shall come from East and West, and recline at the table with Abraham, and Isaac, and Jacob in the kingdom of heaven; but the sons of the Kingdom shall be cast out into the outer darkness; in that place there shall be weeping and gnashing of teeth.’ ” Cf. Matthew 8:5-12

The Jews considered Romans as enemies which God would destroy when Messiah would appear. And yet here was Israel’s Messiah commending the faith of such a one. Hence, Jesus was using Gentiles as examples for Israel to emulate, not look down upon.

(Note: The Quran also uses the phrases “dog”, “apes”, “swine”, and “donkey” to refer to unbelievers. [Cf. 5:60; 7:175-177; 62:5])

Muslim Argument:
God is all-knowing. But according to the Bible, Jesus did not even know the day or hour of his second coming. (Cf. Mark 13:32)

Christian Response:
According to the Bible, Jesus was both God and Man at the same time. The one divine Person of Christ took on a real human nature without ceasing to be God. In Christ, both the nature of God and the nature of man were perfectly united in one Person. (Cf. Mat. 1:22-23; John 1:1, 14; Philip. 2:5b-7; Col. 2:9)

Hence, Jesus had both a divine and human consciousness. In his human consciousness, Jesus’ knowledge was finite and limited. This is precisely why he had to grow in wisdom and knowledge. (Cf. Luke 2:40, 52)

Yet, Jesus in his divine consciousness was omniscient, having the same incomprehensible knowledge and wisdom that the Father has. (Cf. Mat. 11:27; John 21:17; Rev. 2:23b- cf.- Jer. 17:10)

Muslim Argument:
God is able to do all that he pleases. But according to John 5:19 Jesus could do nothing of himself.

Christian Response:
The biblical teaching on the Trinity is not that there are three independent gods each having his own will. Rather, the Bible teaches that there are three distinct, yet inseparable Persons of the Godhead who have one perfect will and who work in perfect harmony. They never work independently. When we read the verse in its entire context, we discover that this is precisely what Jesus was telling the Jews in John 5:19:

“Jesus gave them this answer: `I tell you the truth, the Son can do nothing by himself; he can do only what he sees his Father doing, because WHATEVER the Father does THE SON ALSO DOES.'” NIV

In order for Christ to be able to do everything that his Father does implies that Jesus is God. Only God can do all that the Father does, since the Father does the things that God alone can do. This passage affirms the perfect unity and equality of the Father and Son, along with the Holy Spirit. (Cf. John 16:13)

(Note- It must be pointed out that at the Incarnation Christ took on both a real human nature and a human will. Therefore the one Person of Jesus had both a divine will alongside a human one while still remaining uni-Personal. [Cf. Matthew 26:42])

Muslim Argument:
God cannot die. But according to Christians, Jesus died on the cross. If this is so, how can God die and who was running the universe when Jesus was dead?

Christian Response:
This question commits several fallacies. First, the questioner assumes that when Christians say that Christ died this is intended to mean that Jesus ceased to exist for the three days he was in the tomb. This assumes “soul-sleep,” i.e. that after death there is no more conscious existence until the body is resurrected. This is not what the Bible teaches.

Biblical death means separation, not annihilation. In fact, Scripture indicates that there are two types of separation. The first is the soul separating from the body at death, with the other referring to eternal separation from God in hell. (Cf. Luke 16:19-31; Philippians 1:23; Revelation 6:9-11, 20:14-15)

Jesus did not cease to exist when he died but rather his divine nature along with his human soul departed from his body at the point of death. (Cf. Luke 23:46) The fact that Jesus was still consciously existing at the same time his body lay in the tomb becomes evident in that Christ claimed that he would personally resurrect himself from the grave on the third day: “Jesus answered them, `Destroy this temple AND I WILL RAISE IT AGAIN IN THREEDAYS.’ The Jews replied, `It has taken forty-six years to build this temple, and you are going to raise it in three days?’ But the temple he had spoken of WAS HIS BODY. After He was raised from the dead, his disciples recalled what he had said.” John 2:19-22 NIV

“The reason my Father loves me is that I lay down my life-only to take it up again. NO ONE TAKES IT FROM ME, BUT I LAY IT DOWN OF MY OWN ACCORD. I have authority to lay it down AND AUTHORITY TO TAKE IT UP AGAIN. This command I received from my Father.” John 10:17-18 NIV

These passages affirm that Jesus is God since only God can raise the dead, and that Jesus was consciously existing since had he been asleep he could not have raised himself from the tomb.

The second fallacy relates to the questioner asking who was running the universe during the time that Jesus had died. This assumes the belief in modalism, i.e. that there are not three distinct Persons who are God, but one Person who assumes three different roles. Christians do not believe that Jesus is the only Person within the Godhead, since both the Father and the Holy Spirit are fully God as well. Hence, even if death meant that Jesus ceased to exist for the three days his body lay in the tomb, the Father and the Holy Spirit were still active at this point since it was the Son alone who became man and died.

Muslim Argument:
If Jesus is God, who was praying to in the Garden and while on the cross (Cf. Mat. 26:39, 27:45-46)? Was he praying to himself? Besides, how can God pray?

Christian Response:
This question once again assumes modalism, the belief that Jesus is the only person within the Godhead. Yet, the fact is, Trinitarians do not believe that Jesus is the only Person within the Being of God, but that the Father and Holy Spirit are God as well. Therefore, Jesus was not praying to himself but to the Father.

Furthermore, prayer is intimate communion and fellowship with God. Hence, the three Persons of the Godhead have always had intimate communion among themselves. This is precisely why God does not need anyone outside of his own Being in order to have fellowship.

Since God is tri-Personal, all three Persons become the object of interpersonal communion and love.

Additionally, Jesus is Man as God intended man to be. Therefore, Jesus came to show us by example how we should live in accordance to the will of God, he being the perfect role model: “To this you were called, because Christ suffered for you, leaving you an example that you should follow in his steps.” 1 Pet. 2:21 NIV

Hence, Jesus not only prayed in order to be in constant communion with the Father, but also to teach us how we should pray.

Finally, Jesus as the God-Man both prayed to the Father and commanded believers to pray directly to himself: “I tell you the truth, anyone who has faith in me will do what I have been doing. He will do greater things than these, because I am going to the Father. AND I WILLDOWHATEVER YOU ASK IN MY NAME, so that the Son may bring glory to the Father. YOU MAY ASKME FOR ANYTHING IN MY NAME, AND I WILL DO IT.” John 14:12-14 NIV

In order for Jesus to be able to both hear and answer prayer he must be omnipotent (Almighty) since only an all-powerful Being can grant the requests of all who pray to him. He must also be both omniscient (all-knowing) and omnipresent (present everywhere) in order to know and hear the needs of all who call upon him. These qualities affirm that Jesus is God, since only God is omnipotent, omnipresent, and omniscient as well as the Hearer of prayer.

Therefore, the fact that Jesus both prays and hears prayer affirms that he is one Divine Person who is both God and Man at the same time.

(Note: According to Quran 33:56 Allah prays for Muhammad: “Lo! Allah and his angels pray [Arabic – yasalluuna] for the Prophet. O ye that believe! Pray for him [salluu alayhi], and salute him with all respect [sallimuu tasliimaa].”

Most translations of the Quran mistranslate the words yasalluuna and salluu as blessings, when in fact it literally means prayers. In fact, a devout Muslim will always recite the following prayer when mentioning Muhammad’s name, sallullahu alahyi wa salaam- “the prayers of Allah be for him and his peace.” Another time where the Quran indicates that Allah prays is found in S. 33:43: “He it is Who send prayers upon you [yusalliii `alaykum], as do His angels…”

A Trinitarian can understand and accept the fact that because there are three Persons within the unity of God, it becomes natural for them to have communion among themselves in prayer. But for a singular Deity, having no plurality, to pray for Muhammad is inconceivable since who would Allah be praying to when praying for Muhammad?)

Muslim Argument:
According to Matthew 28:18, all authority was given to Jesus. If authority had to be given to Christ, that means that there is One greater than him who is doing the giving.

Furthermore, this means that Jesus cannot be God since he did not always have authority.

Christian Reponse:
According to the Holy Bible Jesus relinquished his authority in order to become man: “Your attitude should be the same as that of Christ Jesus, who being (Gr.- huperchon) in very nature (morphe) God, did not consider equality with God something to be grasped, but made himself nothing, taking the very nature of a servant, being made in human likeness. And being found in appearance as a man – he humbled himself and became obedient to death-even death on a cross.” Phillippians 2:5-8 NIV

This passage is instructive since it affirms that Jesus willingly made himself nothing. This was not something forced upon him, but something that both he and the Father decided together.

When Jesus became a slave of both God and man, Christ subjected all his authority to the Father without ceasing to be God. The fact that Jesus still remained fully divine is seen by Paul’s usage of the Greek huperchon (being) which is in the present participle tense. This Greek tense implies a continuous state of being or existence, implying that Jesus continued to exist in God’s form even while becoming man on earth.

Therefore, Jesus did not cease to be God but ceased from exercising his authority as God. At his resurrection, Christ received back the authority he had before the Incarnation. He regained an authority which had always been his in the first place; he did not receive an authority which he did not have to begin with.

Muslim Argument:
In Mark 10:35-40, James, John and their mother requested that Jesus would grant the two disciples to sit on his right and left. Yet, Jesus replied that he could not grant such a request, since it had already been determined. How could Jesus be God if he was unable to even grant a request by his disciples?

Christian Reponse:
As we have already noted, Jesus refused to exercise his divine authority since he allowed himself to be a slave. And because he was God’s servant, he became completely subject to the Father’s will in every aspect of his existence on earth. And as the Father’s slave, he could make no decisions until he fulfilled the will of the One who had sent him. (See above)

Muslim Argument:
God cannot be tempted. (Cf. James 1:13) Yet, Jesus was tempted by the devil. (Cf. Mat. 4:1) Jesus, therefore, cannot be God.

Christian Reponse:
It must be remembered that although Jesus was tempted he was still without sin. (Cf. Heb. 4:15)

Furthermore, James’ meaning is not that no one can try to tempt God since many have tried (Cf. Deut. 6:16; Mal. 3:15; Mt. 4:7; Acts 15:10), but that there is nothing within God that would lead him to act upon the temptations. Similarly, although Jesus was tempted there was nothing within Christ that would cause him to act upon it, since he was perfect God and perfect Man.

Muslim Argument:
According to the Bible when a young man came to Jesus calling him good, Jesus responded, “Why do you call me good? No one is good but God alone.” (Mark 10:18) How can Jesus be God if he is not even as good as God?

Christian Reponse:
Jesus did not say that he was not good, but asked the rich man why does he call Jesus good. Jesus was trying to lead the man into questioning whether he really believed Jesus was absolutely good in the same sense that God is. If the rich man really believed Jesus was good, he should then give up everything for Christ. Being God, Jesus deserved unconditional love and self-sacrifice. This is precisely what Jesus demands the rich man to do: “Jesus, looking at him, loved him and said, `You lack one thing; go, sell what you own, and give the money to the poor, and you will have treasure in heaven; then come, follow me.” Mark 10:21 NRSV

The rich man must give up everything for Jesus if he wants to be perfect before God. Only God can demand this kind of devotion, a devotion which Jesus arrogates to himself. This point is brought out more clearly in Matthew 10:37-39: “Whoever loves father or mother more than meis not worthy of me; and whoever loves son or daughter more than meis not worthy of me; and whoever does not take up the cross and follow meis not worthy of me. Those who find their life will lose it, and those who lose their life for my sake will find it.” NRSV

Again in Luke 14:26-27, 33: “Whoever comes to me and does not hate father and mother, wife and children, yes, even life itself, cannot be my disciple. Whoever does not carry the cross and follow me cannot be my disciple… So therefore, none of you can be my disciple if you do not give up all your possessions.” NRSV

No Israelite prophet ever pointed others to himself, but pointed men to God. For Jesus to demand this kind of devotion affirms that he is God; otherwise this would be blasphemous for Jesus to say if he were only a prophet.

To solidify the point that Jesus was not denying that he was absolutely good in the same sense that God is, we quote the following passages: “I am the GOOD Shepherd. The good shepherd lays his life down for the sheep… I am the GOOD Shepherd. I know my own and my own know me.” John 10:11, 14 NRSV

Not only is Jesus affirming his absolute goodness, but also applies a title of Yahweh God to himself: “Yahweh is my Shepherd, I shall not want.” Psalm 23:1 “Give ear, O Shepherd of Israel, you who lead Joseph like a flock!” Psalm 80:1 NRSV

Jesus also claims to be absolutely sinless, having no unrighteousness within him whatsoever: “Those who speak on their own seek their own glory; but the one who seeks the glory of him who sent him is true, and there is nothing false in him.” John 7:18 NRSV

“And the one who sent me is with me; he has not left me alone, for I always do what is pleasing to him.” John 8:29 NRSV

“Which of you convicts me of sin?…” John 8:46 NRSV

No one was able to point to even one sin which Jesus committed. For Jesus to be absolutely good strongly argues the case that he is God. Note the following syllogism:

1. Only God is absolutely good
2. Jesus is absolutely good
3. Therefore, Jesus is God.

Muslim Argument:
Christians often use Jesus’ I AM statements in John, most notably John 8:58, as proof that Jesus identified himself as the I AM of Exodus 3:14. There, Yahweh tells Moses to tell Israel that his name is “`I AM WHO I AM’. He said further, `Thus you shall say to the Israelites, “I AM has sent me to you”‘.” NRSV

According to most biblical scholars the Hebrew phrase, ehyeh asher ehyeh, is more accurately translated as “I WILL BE WHAT I WILL BE.” This is due to the verb from which the phrase stems, hayah, which means “to be.”

Therefore, Jesus’ words have no connection with this passage.

Furthermore, the Greek translation of the Old Testament (called the Septuagint) renders Exodus 3:14 as Ego Eimi Ho On- “I Am The Being.” Jesus in the Johanine gospel uses the term Ego Eimi, “I AM.” He is never called HO ON.

Christian Reponse:
In response to Christ never being addressed as HO ON, this is simply not true. We find this phrase used of Christ in Revelation 1:7-8: “Look! He is coming with the clouds; every eye will see him, even those who pierced him; and on his account all the tribes of the earth will wail. So it is to be. Amen.

“` I am the Alpha and Omega’, says the Lord God, `The Being (Greek- HO ON) who is and who was and who is to come, the ALMIGHTY (pantokrator)‘.”

Jesus Christ, the coming pierced One, identifies himself as both The Being (HO ON) and as the Almighty. The phrase “who is and who was” refers to the eternal nature of God: “And the angels of the waters say, `You are just, O Holy One, who are and who were, for you have judged these things; because they shed the blood of saints and prophets, you have given them blood to drink. It is what they deserve!’ And I heard the altar respond, `Yes, O Lord, the ALMIGHTY (pantokrator), your judgements are true and just!'” Rev. 16:5-7 NRSV

Hence, Jesus in Revelation 1:8 is claiming to be the eternal God.

Secondly, Jesus’ I AM passages tie in with the Hebrew ANI HU references of Isaiah: “Listen to me, O Jacob, and Israel, whom I called: I AM HE (Ani Hu); I am the First, and I am the Last.” Isa. 48:12 NRSV

That the phrase I AM implies Deity is clearly seen in the following verses: “Now then, listen, you wanton creature (i.e. Babylon), lounging in your security and saying to yourself, `I am (LXX- Ego Eimi), and there is none besides me…” Isa. 47:8 NIV (Cf. Isa. 47:10)

God rebukes Babylon for claiming to be the I AM, believing herself to be a God like Yahweh. Hence, I AM is used to denote absolute Deity and sovereignty, being used as a synonym for Yahweh.

Compare Yahweh’s words with Jesus: “Then Jesus, knowing all that was to happen to him, came forward and asked them, `Whom are you looking for?’ They answered, `Jesus of Nazareth.’ Jesus replied, `I AM HE’… When Jesus said to them, `I am he,’ they stepped back and fell to ground.” John 18:4-6 NRSV

The fact that the soldiers fell back when Jesus uttered the words “I AM” affirms that the phrase served to identify Christ as Yahweh. Otherwise, there would be no reason for the soldiers’ falling down to the ground. “When I saw him, I fell at his feet as though dead. But he placed his right hand on me, saying, `Do not be afraid; Iam the first and the last, and the living one. I WAS DEAD, and see I am alive forever and ever, and I have the keys of Death and Hades’.” Rev. 1:17-18 NRSV

No matter from what perspective we look at it, there is no escaping the fact that Jesus does identify himself as Yahweh God.

Muslim Argument:
Jesus commanded his disciples to baptize “in the name of the Father, and of the Son, and of the Holy Spirit.” (Cf. Mat. 28:19) Yet, the disciples baptized in Jesus’ name instead. (Cf. Acts 2:38)

Christian Reponse:
There is a confusion between the method of baptism, with the authority given to baptize. Jesus is prescribing the method by which believers are to baptized, whereas the disciples were pointing to the authority they received from Jesus to perform this method of baptism: “And he said to them, `Thus it is written, that the Messiah is to suffer and to rise from the dead on the third day, and that repentance and forgiveness of sins is to be proclaimed in his name to all nations…” Luke 24:46-47 NRSV

“And a man lame from birth was being carried in… But Peter said, `I have no silver or gold, but what I have I give you; in the name of Jesus Christ of Nazareth, stand up and walk.’ And he took him by the right hand and raised him up; and immediately his feet and ankles were made strong… `The God of Abraham, the God of Isaac, and the God of Jacob, the God of our ancestors has glorified his servant Jesus, whom you handed over and rejected in the presence of Pilate, though he had decided to release him. But you rejected the Holy and Righteous One and asked to have a murderer given to you, and you killed the Author of life, whom God raised from the dead. To this we are witnesses. And by faith in his name, his name itself has made this man strong, whom you see and know; and the faith that is through Jesus has given him this perfect health in the presence of all of you’.” Acts 3:2, 6-7, 13-16 NRSV

Muslim Argument:
According to Christians, Jesus is the Father’s Son. Yet, according to both Matthew 1:20 and Luke 1:35 Jesus was conceived supernaturally to the virgin Mary by the Holy Spirit. This makes the Holy Spirit Jesus’ father.

Christian Reponse:
This question assumes that Christians believe that Jesus became God’s Son at the virgin conception. This is not what Christians believe. Jesus is the eternal Son of God: “… I am the bread that came down from heaven.” John 6:41 NIV

“I came from the Father and entered the world; now I am leaving the world and going back to the Father.” John 16:28 NIV

“So now, Father, glorify me in your presence with the glory that I had in your presence before the world existed… Father I desire that those also, whom you have given me, may be with me where I am, to see my glory, which you have given me because you loved me before the foundation of the world.” John 17:5, 24 NRSV

Therefore, the Holy Spirit conceived the human nature of Christ; he did not conceive the eternal Person of Christ.